CNS infections Flashcards

1
Q

What is the blood-brain barrier?

A

barrier systems that separate the brain and CSF from the blood and prevent diffusion of electrolytes, fluids and substances from the blood into the CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What produces the CSF?

A

choroid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does meningitis affect CSF pressure?

A

causes rapid increases in CSF pressure resulting in brain herniation causing respiratory depression + death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does CSF look like?

A

clear
colourless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many cells and of what type are normal in CSF?

A

CSF is acellular
<5 WBCs + <5RBCs are normal in lumbar puncture CSF sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can cause raised CSF protein?

A

CNS infections
SAH
traumatic tap
neoplastic meningitis
obstruction of CSF flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can cause low CSF glucose?

A

bacterial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can cause low CSF glucose?

A

some viral infections:
- mumps
- herpes simplex
- herpes zoster
- lymphocytic choriomeningitis
- enteroviruses

TB
syphilis
fungal CNS infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can cause CSF oligoclonal bands?

A

usually seen in MS
CNS infections
tumours
autoimmune diseases
lymphoproliferative diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is CSF xanthrochromia seen?

A

SAH - at least 6 hours after onset of thunderclap headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do infections of the CNS occur?

A

direct innoculation (rabies, tetanus toxin)
haematogenous dissemination
contiguous spread (otitis media)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name some acute CNS infections

A

meningitis
encephalitis
brain abscess/subdural empyema
acute myelopathy = spinal epidural abscess, TB, poliomyelitis
cerebral malaria
toxin-mediated = botulism, tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What specific questions should be asked in suspected CNS infection?

A

occupation
travel
vaccination/prophylaxis
pregnancy
immune-competent/immune-suppressed
sexual behaviour
IV drug abuse
comorbidities (DM, cardiac disease, neurosurgery)
tick/animal exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Kernig’s sign?

A

passive resistance to knee extension from flexed knee and thigh position

reflects irritation of nerve roots by inflamed meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Brudzinski’s sign?

A

involuntary flexion of hips/knees with abrupt neck flexion

reflects irritation of nerve roots by inflamed meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lumbar puncture contraindications/CT needed first

A

raised intracranial pressure (hypertension, bradycardia, papilloedema)

focal neurological deficits

dilated/poorly reactive pupil (3rd nerve palsy)

coma or deteriorating LOC

signs of posterior fossa lesion (dysarthria, ataxia)

local sepsis

coagulopathy

seizures

immunocompromised

17
Q

Commonest causes of bacterial meningitis

A

neisseria meningitidis
streptococcus pneumoniae

18
Q

Commonest cause of bacterial meningitis in immunocompromised individuals

A

streptococcus pneumoniae
listeria monocytogenes
gram negative bacteria

19
Q

Symptoms and signs of acute infectious meningitis

A

triad of headache, fever, and neck stiffness
photophobia, rash (meningococcocaemia), vomiting, altered LOC

focal neurological deficits

20
Q

Subtle signs of meningitis in neonates

A

altered LOC
irritability
lethargy
weak suck
high pitched cry
vomiting
diarrhoea
fever
hypothermia
bulging fontanelle
jaundice

neck stiffness and fever may be absent

21
Q

Subtle signs of meningitis in the elderly

A

lethargy
obtundation (slowed response to stimulation)
fever and neck stiffness may be absent

22
Q

Who is at risk of pneumococcal meningitis?

A

splenectomy/splenic dysfunction
alcoholism
pneumonia
otitis media
paranasal sinusitis
CSF leaks
reduced humoral immunity eg. multiple myeloma

23
Q

Neurological complications of pneumococcal meningitis

A

venous sinus thrombosis
stroke
hydrocephalus
coma
seizures
focal neurological deficit

24
Q

Empiric treatment of bacterial meningitis

A

Cefotaxime IV 2g 6-hourly or Ceftriaxone 2g 12-hourly
+
Dexamethasone IV 10mg qds
+
Amoxicillin 2g 4-hourly for patients 60 years and over, immunocompromised, diabetes mellitus or alcohol misuse
+
Vancomycin IV or Rifampicin PO/IV for patients who have travelled recently to a country with prevalent penicillin-resistant pneumococcus

25
Q

Empiric treatment of bacterial meningitis - penicillin allergy

A

Chloramphenicol IV 25mg/kg 6-hourly
+
Dexamethasone IV 10mg qds
+
Co-trimoxazole IV 10-20mg/kg of the trimethoprim component in 4 divided doses for patients 60y +, immunocompromised, diabetes, or alcohol misuse
+
Vancomycin IV or Rifampicin PO/IV if travel to penicillin-resistant area

26
Q

What is a brain abscess?

A

infection of brain parenchyma

27
Q

What is a subdural empyema?

A

infection between dura and arachnoid mater

28
Q

What can cause brain abscesses/subdural empyemas?

A

trauma
neurosurgery
local infection (otitis media, dental, paranasal sinusitis, bacterial meningitis, orbital cellulitis)

29
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

part of meningoencephalitis
direct invasion of brain (rabies, HSV)
secondary immunological response to infection or immunisation (para- and post-infectious encephalitis)

30
Q

Encephalitis causes

A

viral eg HSV
bacterial eg ricketsial, typhus, syphilis
parasitic eg malaria

31
Q

Signs and symptoms of HSV1 encephalitis

A

fever
confusion
depressed LOC
seizures
focal neurological deficits - anosmia, hallucinations, dysphasia, hemiparesis, memory loss

32
Q

HSV1 encephalitis treatment

A

IV acyclovir

33
Q
A