Clin med 5 final Flashcards
what can dead worms cause
pulmonary thrombosis and hypertension
what is valve stenosis
murmur due to velocity of blood through stenotic valve
HARD in cats
heartworm assosiated respiratory disease
what can heartworm disease result in
right sided heart failure
how do you kill microfilaria in dogs
ivermectin
neoplasmic cardiac disease
hemangiosarcoma
what is common in aortic and pulmonic valves
valve stenosis
cat test for adult hw
antigen and antibody
what are cough, exercise intolerance, dyspnea, weakness, and syncope symptoms of
cardiac disease
how do you kill adult hw in dogs
immiticide
who commonly has DCM
old age dogs (doberman)
dog test for adult hw
antigen
when should a dog be tested for hw
6 months old, missed dose, seasonally
what do left sided heart failure symptoms relate to
fluid buildup in respiratory system
what does endocarditis usually affect
mitral valve
most common patellar luxation
medial
what is hypertension caused by
renal disease
clinical signs of left sided heart failure
pulmonary edema, cough, crackles
how long is the heartworm life cycle
6 months
when should heartworm prevention be started
6-8 weeks
in hip dysplasia, what does the femoral head move along
acetabulum
valve stenosis carriers
large breeds
what side of heart failure is most common
left sided
what is the most effective DJD surgical tx
total hip replacement
what do right sided heart failure symptoms relate to
fluid buildup in the body (plural effusion)
how do you kill microfilaria in cats
microfilaricide
what can cause DCM in cats
taurine deficiency
what is the electrical impulse path
SA, AV, bundle of his, purkinje fibers
infectious cardiac disease
endocarditis
DJD aka
osteoarthritis
dogs predisposed to bone tumors
rottweiler, greyhound, males 7 years or older
cause of panosteitis
unknown; virus suspected
4 parts of the musculoskeletal system
bones, muscle, joints, nerves
CCl surgery recovery
4 weeks bed rest
4 weeks controlled exercise
+/- bandage
overstretched muscle without swelling
strain
what results in DJD
hip dysplasia
who is osteochondrosis dissecans common in
3-18 mo old dogs and large breed animals
injury or tear to this ligament is the most common cause of acute hind limb lameness in large breed dogs
cranial cruciate ligament
what DJD creates a false joint and is the main reason to alleviate pain
femoral head ostectomy
symptoms include megaesophagus, voice change, dilated pupils, weak facial muscles
myasthenia gravis
who is ununited anconeal process common in
German Shepard Dog
what is the best option of CCL surgery
TPLO-tibial plateau leveling osteotomy
who is cranial cruciate ligament rare in
cats
what 3 views are required for Penn Hip radiograph
distraction view, compression view, ventrodorsal hip extended view
where is a bone tumor mainly located
away from the elbow, near the knee
who is osteoarthritis most common in
older dogs
what are the 2 common types of CCL and who has them
acute-young athletic dogs
chronic-old overweight dogs
CCL surgery concerns
opposite leg affected in 1 year and DJD will happen
most common disease of MS system
obesity
what does declaw surgery remove
claw and 3rd phalanx
what is masticatory muscle myositis
immune-mediated myoopathy
most common bone tumor in dogs and cats
osteosarcoma 85-90%
how is DJD prevented
responsible breeding
DJD drug treatment
NSAIDS and tramadol
orthopedic foundation for animals radiograph positioning
ventrodorsal
what does the tensilon test check for
myasthenia gravis
what are the most frequently affected bones of panosteitis
humerus, ulna, radius, femur, tibia
what is the goal of CCL surgery
stabilize joint and minimize DJD
when does cranial cruciate ligament occur
during hyperextension
most important DJD treatment
weight loss
where is osteoarthritis most commonly found
hips
most common OCD joint
shoulder
what is osteochondrosis dissecans caused by
failure of cartilage to mature into bone
twisted joint with partial rupture of ligaents and possible damage to blood vessels, muscles, tendons, and nerves
sprain
how is wobbler syndrome treated
medically or surgical
when does panosteitis start
6-8 months
panosteitis aka
growing pain
what virus causes rabies
rhabdovirus
what does proprioception test (4)
knuckling, hopping, wheelbarrowing, walking coordination
what are the 2 types of deafness
conductive and neural
what part of the brain controls anger
cerebrum
what function does the vestibular system have (2)
balance and proprioception
what are cluster seizures
multiple seizures in a short time frame
what medications can be used to treat cognitive dysfunction
vitamins and anipryl(selegiine)
what is the most common cause of human exposure to rabies
bats
what cranial nerves does menace test
2 & 7
with a spinal cord injury from C1-T2 what is affected
front and rear legs
what is type I IVDD
acute injury
when are seizures considered an emergency
continued for more than 5-10 min. or repeated clusters
name 2 causes of encephalitis
rabies and distemper
why do we do a neuro exam
localize lesion, diagnosis, prognosis
human bite with non vaccinated animal
euthanazia
out of date animal is bitten by a rabid animal
euthanized or 180 day quarantine
what is rabies incubation period
3-8 weeks; up to 6 months
what cranial nerves does gag reflex test
9 & 10
what should be done with a biter who is up to date on rabies vaccine
10 day quarantine
where is peripheral nerve disease commonly found
brachial plexus and caudal cervical nerve roots
how long can a drug take to reach adequate levels in the bloodstream
7-10 days
what is the most common brain tumor in dogs and cats
maningioma
how soon do rabis symptoms usually occur in humans
30-50 days
what are the 2 main parts of the nervous system
central and peripheral
how are drug levels monitored
bloodwork, liver enzymes, diagnostic lab
with a spinal cord injury from S1-S3 what is affected
sciatic nerve and perineum
what is the most common cause of rabies in domestic animals on the east coast
raccoons
how do you treat discospondylitis
long term ABX and pain meds
what cranial nerves does oculo-vestibular
3, 4, 6, & 8
what is the most common cause of seizures in dogs
ideopathic epilepsy
what is the most common type of epilepsy
idiopathic/primary
what function does the brainstem have (2)
mental status, body function
what drug should not be used in seizure patients
acepromazine
what can missed doses of phenobarbitol lead to
seizures
how soon does death occur with rabies
within 10 days
name 2 long term seizure medications
potassium bromide and phenobarbitol
what should be done with a biter whos rabies vaccine is outdated
euthanized or (discuraged) 10 day quarantine
how is IVDD treated
medically or surgical
what is status epilepticus
actively seizing
what is the general prognosis for vestibular disease
good
with IVDD what function will be lost first
motor before secondary
how soon does death occur in humans exposed to rabies
within 3-20 days of symptoms
what is the medical treatment of hydrocephalus
feurosimide or manitol
what cranial nerves does PLR test
2 & 3
who is most likely to get wobbler syndrome
large breeds- Doberman and Great Dane; horses
with a spinal cord injury from T3-L3 what is affected
rear legs
what type of disease is distemper
viral
what cranial nerves does corneal reflex test
5 & 7
what is cerebellar hypoplasia linked to
panleukopenia in cats
human bite with vaccinated animal
10 day quarantine without vaccine
what do embolus symptoms depend on
location
what is a common neurologic disease in older dogs
brain tumor
up to date animal is bitten by a rabid animal
law requires a 90 day quarantine
what are the 2 types of IVDD
type I and type II
what function does the cerebellum have (2)
coordination and balance
what is type II IVDD
chronic degeneration
with a spinal cord injury from L4-S3 what is affected
rear legs and perineum
what does nystagmus, head tilt, circling, ataxia, nausea, and V+ indicate
vestibular disease
what do reflexes test
peripheral nerves or spinal cord only
where and when is prolactin secreted
anterior pituitary in last third of pregnancy
what could be wrong with a dog who has PU/PD, is depressed, anorexic, possible V+ and D+, discharge, and possible shock
pyometra
how long is a felines anestrus
2-6 weeks
when does diestrus occur
after mating and ovulation
how often does a felines estrous cycle occur
every 2-3 weeks until mating or spaying
define glactostasis
painful enlargement of gland
when is the transition to puppy/kitten food
4-6 weeks
foul vulvar discharge, acting sick, and lack of maternal behavior indicates what
metritis
how long can stage 1 of pregnancy last
up to 36 hours (6-12 avg)
ascending inflammation of the uterus
metritis
how is a cleft palate noticed
not growing and nose bubbles
what is uterine inertia
tired uterus
what is paraphimosis
inability to retract penis
how long is brown discharge seen in association with SIPS
12 weeks
what is the most common male reproductive disease
prostate disease
when should you first breed a dog
2 years in estrus
what is unique about animals ovaries
the left ovary is more caudal
when are physical changes of pregnancy seen
most obvious in last week
what is a omphalocele
protrusion of part of intestine through defect in abdominal wall at umbilicus
how long does stage 2 of pregnancy last in cats
4-36 hours
what stage of estrus does a pyometra occur
diestrus
how do you rule out a pseudocyesis
radiograph or ultrasound
what is a serious illness associated with low Ca levels
eclampsia
what does weakness, shaking, seizures, collapse, and death indicate
eclampsia
what is a pseudocyesis
pseudopregnancy
what disease is most common in puppies before puberty and rarely in adults
vaginitis
where is progesterone secreted
corpus luteum within ovary
BPH
begnine prostate hyperplasia (cause of prostate disease
what is a pyometra
hormone dysfunction complicated by ascending infection
how often should a kitten be born
20 min
how soon after a puppy should the placenta be delivered
5-15 min
when should the dewclaw be removed
2-5 days old
what is SIPS
subinvolution of placental sites
when is metritis seen
after parturition and with retained placenta/fetus
when is a dogs first “heat”
6-12 months
what tumors are uncommon in males and females
transmissible venereal
what color discharge may be seen with delivery and how long can it persist
green/black; 12-24 hours
what are the CS. of vaginitis
mimic UTI- vaginal licking, discharge, pollakiuria
how long is a felines metestrus
1-2 weeks is not ovulated
how long is a felines pseudopregnancy
40 days
when should vac. and deworming start
6-8 weeks
what is persistent frenulum
congenital problem- remnent fetal tissue
define agalactia
no milk production
what is a zoonotic bacterial infection
brucellosis
when is a male sexually active
10-12 months
when is a cats first “heat”
6-9 months old
when can a radiograph be used during pregnancy
45 days
how long does stage 2 of pregnancy last in dogs
24 hours (3-6 avg)
when can bloodwork be used during pregnancy
28 days
how often should a puppy be born
20-60 minutes (2 hours MAX)
how long is a felines proestrus
not usually seen, 1-3 days
how long is a felines estrus
8-10 days
how is metritis treated
oxytocin
what is blanoposthitis
inflammation of mucosal lining in prepuce
when can an ultrasound be used during pregnancy
28 days (earlier in cats)
mammary tumor malignancy rate in cats
80-90%
how is the ovary attached to the body wall
by a suspensory ligament that must be stretched or torn
what does prolapsed vaginal tissue at start of estrus indicate
vaginal hyperplasia
where and when is oxytocin secreted
posterior pituitary in last hours of pregnancy
when can the pregnancy be palpated
30-36 days (earlier in cats)
what is pollakiuria
increased frequency of urination
when does eclampsia occur
2-4 weeks after whelping in small dogs
how long is a felines full estrous cycle
1-3 weeks
how long is a canine or felines gestation
65 days (63 avg.)
brucellosis treatment
long term dox
how often should a baby nurse
every 2 hours
mammary tumor malignancy rate in dogs
50%
