Clin med 5 final Flashcards

0
Q

what can dead worms cause

A

pulmonary thrombosis and hypertension

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1
Q

what is valve stenosis

A

murmur due to velocity of blood through stenotic valve

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2
Q

HARD in cats

A

heartworm assosiated respiratory disease

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3
Q

what can heartworm disease result in

A

right sided heart failure

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4
Q

how do you kill microfilaria in dogs

A

ivermectin

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5
Q

neoplasmic cardiac disease

A

hemangiosarcoma

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6
Q

what is common in aortic and pulmonic valves

A

valve stenosis

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7
Q

cat test for adult hw

A

antigen and antibody

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8
Q

what are cough, exercise intolerance, dyspnea, weakness, and syncope symptoms of

A

cardiac disease

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9
Q

how do you kill adult hw in dogs

A

immiticide

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10
Q

who commonly has DCM

A

old age dogs (doberman)

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11
Q

dog test for adult hw

A

antigen

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12
Q

when should a dog be tested for hw

A

6 months old, missed dose, seasonally

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13
Q

what do left sided heart failure symptoms relate to

A

fluid buildup in respiratory system

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14
Q

what does endocarditis usually affect

A

mitral valve

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15
Q

most common patellar luxation

A

medial

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16
Q

what is hypertension caused by

A

renal disease

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17
Q

clinical signs of left sided heart failure

A

pulmonary edema, cough, crackles

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18
Q

how long is the heartworm life cycle

A

6 months

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19
Q

when should heartworm prevention be started

A

6-8 weeks

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20
Q

in hip dysplasia, what does the femoral head move along

A

acetabulum

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21
Q

valve stenosis carriers

A

large breeds

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22
Q

what side of heart failure is most common

A

left sided

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23
Q

what is the most effective DJD surgical tx

A

total hip replacement

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24
Q

what do right sided heart failure symptoms relate to

A

fluid buildup in the body (plural effusion)

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25
Q

how do you kill microfilaria in cats

A

microfilaricide

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26
Q

what can cause DCM in cats

A

taurine deficiency

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27
Q

what is the electrical impulse path

A

SA, AV, bundle of his, purkinje fibers

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28
Q

infectious cardiac disease

A

endocarditis

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29
Q

DJD aka

A

osteoarthritis

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30
Q

dogs predisposed to bone tumors

A

rottweiler, greyhound, males 7 years or older

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31
Q

cause of panosteitis

A

unknown; virus suspected

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32
Q

4 parts of the musculoskeletal system

A

bones, muscle, joints, nerves

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33
Q

CCl surgery recovery

A

4 weeks bed rest
4 weeks controlled exercise
+/- bandage

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34
Q

overstretched muscle without swelling

A

strain

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35
Q

what results in DJD

A

hip dysplasia

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36
Q

who is osteochondrosis dissecans common in

A

3-18 mo old dogs and large breed animals

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37
Q

injury or tear to this ligament is the most common cause of acute hind limb lameness in large breed dogs

A

cranial cruciate ligament

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38
Q

what DJD creates a false joint and is the main reason to alleviate pain

A

femoral head ostectomy

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39
Q

symptoms include megaesophagus, voice change, dilated pupils, weak facial muscles

A

myasthenia gravis

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40
Q

who is ununited anconeal process common in

A

German Shepard Dog

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41
Q

what is the best option of CCL surgery

A

TPLO-tibial plateau leveling osteotomy

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42
Q

who is cranial cruciate ligament rare in

A

cats

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43
Q

what 3 views are required for Penn Hip radiograph

A

distraction view, compression view, ventrodorsal hip extended view

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44
Q

where is a bone tumor mainly located

A

away from the elbow, near the knee

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45
Q

who is osteoarthritis most common in

A

older dogs

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46
Q

what are the 2 common types of CCL and who has them

A

acute-young athletic dogs

chronic-old overweight dogs

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47
Q

CCL surgery concerns

A

opposite leg affected in 1 year and DJD will happen

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48
Q

most common disease of MS system

A

obesity

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49
Q

what does declaw surgery remove

A

claw and 3rd phalanx

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50
Q

what is masticatory muscle myositis

A

immune-mediated myoopathy

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51
Q

most common bone tumor in dogs and cats

A

osteosarcoma 85-90%

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52
Q

how is DJD prevented

A

responsible breeding

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53
Q

DJD drug treatment

A

NSAIDS and tramadol

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54
Q

orthopedic foundation for animals radiograph positioning

A

ventrodorsal

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55
Q

what does the tensilon test check for

A

myasthenia gravis

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56
Q

what are the most frequently affected bones of panosteitis

A

humerus, ulna, radius, femur, tibia

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57
Q

what is the goal of CCL surgery

A

stabilize joint and minimize DJD

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58
Q

when does cranial cruciate ligament occur

A

during hyperextension

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59
Q

most important DJD treatment

A

weight loss

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60
Q

where is osteoarthritis most commonly found

A

hips

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61
Q

most common OCD joint

A

shoulder

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62
Q

what is osteochondrosis dissecans caused by

A

failure of cartilage to mature into bone

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63
Q

twisted joint with partial rupture of ligaents and possible damage to blood vessels, muscles, tendons, and nerves

A

sprain

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64
Q

how is wobbler syndrome treated

A

medically or surgical

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65
Q

when does panosteitis start

A

6-8 months

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66
Q

panosteitis aka

A

growing pain

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67
Q

what virus causes rabies

A

rhabdovirus

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68
Q

what does proprioception test (4)

A

knuckling, hopping, wheelbarrowing, walking coordination

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69
Q

what are the 2 types of deafness

A

conductive and neural

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70
Q

what part of the brain controls anger

A

cerebrum

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71
Q

what function does the vestibular system have (2)

A

balance and proprioception

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72
Q

what are cluster seizures

A

multiple seizures in a short time frame

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73
Q

what medications can be used to treat cognitive dysfunction

A

vitamins and anipryl(selegiine)

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74
Q

what is the most common cause of human exposure to rabies

A

bats

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75
Q

what cranial nerves does menace test

A

2 & 7

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76
Q

with a spinal cord injury from C1-T2 what is affected

A

front and rear legs

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77
Q

what is type I IVDD

A

acute injury

78
Q

when are seizures considered an emergency

A

continued for more than 5-10 min. or repeated clusters

79
Q

name 2 causes of encephalitis

A

rabies and distemper

80
Q

why do we do a neuro exam

A

localize lesion, diagnosis, prognosis

81
Q

human bite with non vaccinated animal

A

euthanazia

82
Q

out of date animal is bitten by a rabid animal

A

euthanized or 180 day quarantine

83
Q

what is rabies incubation period

A

3-8 weeks; up to 6 months

84
Q

what cranial nerves does gag reflex test

A

9 & 10

85
Q

what should be done with a biter who is up to date on rabies vaccine

A

10 day quarantine

86
Q

where is peripheral nerve disease commonly found

A

brachial plexus and caudal cervical nerve roots

87
Q

how long can a drug take to reach adequate levels in the bloodstream

A

7-10 days

88
Q

what is the most common brain tumor in dogs and cats

A

maningioma

89
Q

how soon do rabis symptoms usually occur in humans

A

30-50 days

90
Q

what are the 2 main parts of the nervous system

A

central and peripheral

91
Q

how are drug levels monitored

A

bloodwork, liver enzymes, diagnostic lab

92
Q

with a spinal cord injury from S1-S3 what is affected

A

sciatic nerve and perineum

93
Q

what is the most common cause of rabies in domestic animals on the east coast

A

raccoons

94
Q

how do you treat discospondylitis

A

long term ABX and pain meds

95
Q

what cranial nerves does oculo-vestibular

A

3, 4, 6, & 8

96
Q

what is the most common cause of seizures in dogs

A

ideopathic epilepsy

97
Q

what is the most common type of epilepsy

A

idiopathic/primary

98
Q

what function does the brainstem have (2)

A

mental status, body function

99
Q

what drug should not be used in seizure patients

A

acepromazine

100
Q

what can missed doses of phenobarbitol lead to

A

seizures

101
Q

how soon does death occur with rabies

A

within 10 days

102
Q

name 2 long term seizure medications

A

potassium bromide and phenobarbitol

103
Q

what should be done with a biter whos rabies vaccine is outdated

A

euthanized or (discuraged) 10 day quarantine

104
Q

how is IVDD treated

A

medically or surgical

105
Q

what is status epilepticus

A

actively seizing

106
Q

what is the general prognosis for vestibular disease

A

good

107
Q

with IVDD what function will be lost first

A

motor before secondary

108
Q

how soon does death occur in humans exposed to rabies

A

within 3-20 days of symptoms

109
Q

what is the medical treatment of hydrocephalus

A

feurosimide or manitol

110
Q

what cranial nerves does PLR test

A

2 & 3

111
Q

who is most likely to get wobbler syndrome

A

large breeds- Doberman and Great Dane; horses

112
Q

with a spinal cord injury from T3-L3 what is affected

A

rear legs

113
Q

what type of disease is distemper

A

viral

114
Q

what cranial nerves does corneal reflex test

A

5 & 7

115
Q

what is cerebellar hypoplasia linked to

A

panleukopenia in cats

116
Q

human bite with vaccinated animal

A

10 day quarantine without vaccine

117
Q

what do embolus symptoms depend on

A

location

118
Q

what is a common neurologic disease in older dogs

A

brain tumor

119
Q

up to date animal is bitten by a rabid animal

A

law requires a 90 day quarantine

120
Q

what are the 2 types of IVDD

A

type I and type II

121
Q

what function does the cerebellum have (2)

A

coordination and balance

122
Q

what is type II IVDD

A

chronic degeneration

123
Q

with a spinal cord injury from L4-S3 what is affected

A

rear legs and perineum

124
Q

what does nystagmus, head tilt, circling, ataxia, nausea, and V+ indicate

A

vestibular disease

125
Q

what do reflexes test

A

peripheral nerves or spinal cord only

126
Q

where and when is prolactin secreted

A

anterior pituitary in last third of pregnancy

127
Q

what could be wrong with a dog who has PU/PD, is depressed, anorexic, possible V+ and D+, discharge, and possible shock

A

pyometra

128
Q

how long is a felines anestrus

A

2-6 weeks

129
Q

when does diestrus occur

A

after mating and ovulation

130
Q

how often does a felines estrous cycle occur

A

every 2-3 weeks until mating or spaying

131
Q

define glactostasis

A

painful enlargement of gland

132
Q

when is the transition to puppy/kitten food

A

4-6 weeks

133
Q

foul vulvar discharge, acting sick, and lack of maternal behavior indicates what

A

metritis

134
Q

how long can stage 1 of pregnancy last

A

up to 36 hours (6-12 avg)

135
Q

ascending inflammation of the uterus

A

metritis

136
Q

how is a cleft palate noticed

A

not growing and nose bubbles

137
Q

what is uterine inertia

A

tired uterus

138
Q

what is paraphimosis

A

inability to retract penis

139
Q

how long is brown discharge seen in association with SIPS

A

12 weeks

140
Q

what is the most common male reproductive disease

A

prostate disease

141
Q

when should you first breed a dog

A

2 years in estrus

142
Q

what is unique about animals ovaries

A

the left ovary is more caudal

143
Q

when are physical changes of pregnancy seen

A

most obvious in last week

144
Q

what is a omphalocele

A

protrusion of part of intestine through defect in abdominal wall at umbilicus

145
Q

how long does stage 2 of pregnancy last in cats

A

4-36 hours

146
Q

what stage of estrus does a pyometra occur

A

diestrus

147
Q

how do you rule out a pseudocyesis

A

radiograph or ultrasound

148
Q

what is a serious illness associated with low Ca levels

A

eclampsia

149
Q

what does weakness, shaking, seizures, collapse, and death indicate

A

eclampsia

150
Q

what is a pseudocyesis

A

pseudopregnancy

151
Q

what disease is most common in puppies before puberty and rarely in adults

A

vaginitis

152
Q

where is progesterone secreted

A

corpus luteum within ovary

153
Q

BPH

A

begnine prostate hyperplasia (cause of prostate disease

154
Q

what is a pyometra

A

hormone dysfunction complicated by ascending infection

155
Q

how often should a kitten be born

A

20 min

156
Q

how soon after a puppy should the placenta be delivered

A

5-15 min

157
Q

when should the dewclaw be removed

A

2-5 days old

158
Q

what is SIPS

A

subinvolution of placental sites

159
Q

when is metritis seen

A

after parturition and with retained placenta/fetus

160
Q

when is a dogs first “heat”

A

6-12 months

161
Q

what tumors are uncommon in males and females

A

transmissible venereal

162
Q

what color discharge may be seen with delivery and how long can it persist

A

green/black; 12-24 hours

163
Q

what are the CS. of vaginitis

A

mimic UTI- vaginal licking, discharge, pollakiuria

164
Q

how long is a felines metestrus

A

1-2 weeks is not ovulated

165
Q

how long is a felines pseudopregnancy

A

40 days

166
Q

when should vac. and deworming start

A

6-8 weeks

167
Q

what is persistent frenulum

A

congenital problem- remnent fetal tissue

168
Q

define agalactia

A

no milk production

169
Q

what is a zoonotic bacterial infection

A

brucellosis

170
Q

when is a male sexually active

A

10-12 months

171
Q

when is a cats first “heat”

A

6-9 months old

172
Q

when can a radiograph be used during pregnancy

A

45 days

173
Q

how long does stage 2 of pregnancy last in dogs

A

24 hours (3-6 avg)

174
Q

when can bloodwork be used during pregnancy

A

28 days

175
Q

how often should a puppy be born

A

20-60 minutes (2 hours MAX)

176
Q

how long is a felines proestrus

A

not usually seen, 1-3 days

177
Q

how long is a felines estrus

A

8-10 days

178
Q

how is metritis treated

A

oxytocin

179
Q

what is blanoposthitis

A

inflammation of mucosal lining in prepuce

180
Q

when can an ultrasound be used during pregnancy

A

28 days (earlier in cats)

181
Q

mammary tumor malignancy rate in cats

A

80-90%

182
Q

how is the ovary attached to the body wall

A

by a suspensory ligament that must be stretched or torn

183
Q

what does prolapsed vaginal tissue at start of estrus indicate

A

vaginal hyperplasia

184
Q

where and when is oxytocin secreted

A

posterior pituitary in last hours of pregnancy

185
Q

when can the pregnancy be palpated

A

30-36 days (earlier in cats)

186
Q

what is pollakiuria

A

increased frequency of urination

187
Q

when does eclampsia occur

A

2-4 weeks after whelping in small dogs

188
Q

how long is a felines full estrous cycle

A

1-3 weeks

189
Q

how long is a canine or felines gestation

A

65 days (63 avg.)

190
Q

brucellosis treatment

A

long term dox

191
Q

how often should a baby nurse

A

every 2 hours

192
Q

mammary tumor malignancy rate in dogs

A

50%