4: neurology and rabies Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 main parts of the nercous system

A

central and peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 parts of the brain

A

cerebrum, brainstem, vestibular system, cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what function does the cerebrum have (5)

A

behavior, vision, emotion, learning, logic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what function does the brainstem have (2)

A

mental status, body function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what function does the vestibular system have (2)

A

balance and proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what function does the cerebellum have (2)

A

coordination and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why do we do a neuro exam

A

localize lesion, diagnosis, prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what cranial nerves does PLR test

A

2 & 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what cranial nerves does menace test

A

2 & 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what cranial nerves does corneal reflex test

A

5 & 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what cranial nerves does gag reflex test

A

9 & 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what cranial nerves does oculo-vestibular

A

3, 4, 6, & 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what do reflexes test

A

peripheral nerves or spinal cord only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does proprioception test (4)

A

knuckling, hopping, wheelbarrowing, walking coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most common cause of seizures in dogs

A

ideopathic epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

name 2 long term seizure medications

A

potassium bromide and phenobarbitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

name an emergency seizure medication

A

diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how are drug levels monitored

A

bloodwork, liver enzymes, diagnostic lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how long can a drug take to reach adequate levels in the bloodstream

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are 2 emergency seizure types

A

status epilepticus and cluster seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is status epilepticus

A

actively seizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are cluster seizures

A

multiple seizures in a short time frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

name 2 causes of encephalitis

A

rabies and distemper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

name 2 congenital diseases

A

cerebellar hypoplasia and hydrocephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is cerebellar hypoplasia linked to

A

panleukopenia in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does nystagmus, head tilt, circling, ataxia, nausea, and V+ indicate

A

vestibular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the general prognosis for vestibular disease

A

good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the most common brain tumor in dogs and cats

A

maningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what medications can be used to treat cognitive dysfunction

A

vitamins and anipryl(selegiine)

30
Q

what are the 2 types of IVDD

A

type I and type II

31
Q

what is type I IVDD

A

acute injury

32
Q

what is type II IVDD

A

chronic degeneration

33
Q

how is IVDD diagnosed

A

radiographs, myelogram, and MRI

34
Q

how is IVDD treated

A

medically or surgical

35
Q

how is most likely to get wobbler syndrome

A

large breeds- Doberman and Great Dane; horses

36
Q

how is wobbler dyndrome diagnosed

A

radiographs, myelogram, and MRI

37
Q

how is wobbler dyndrome treated

A

medically or surgical

38
Q

how do you diagnose discospondylitis

A

exam, bloodwoork, radiograph, culture, biopsy, MRI

39
Q

how do you treat discospondylitis

A

long term ABX and pain meds

40
Q

what is the most common cause of rabies in domestic animals on the east coast

A

raccoons

41
Q

what is the most common cause of human exposure to rabies

A

bats

42
Q

how is rabies diagnosed

A

post mortem brain tissue tests

43
Q

with a spinal cord injury from C1-T2 what is affected

A

front and rear legs

44
Q

with a spinal cord injury from T3-L3 what is affected

A

rear legs

45
Q

with a spinal cord injury from L4-S3 what is affected

A

rear legs and perineum

46
Q

with a spinal cord injury from S1-S3 what is affected

A

sciatic nerve and perineum

47
Q

what is a common neurologic disease in older dogs

A

brain tumor

48
Q

what is the most common type of epilepsy

A

idiopathic/primary

49
Q

are seizures generally an emergency

A

no

50
Q

when are seizures considered an emergency

A

continued for more than 5-10 min. or repeated clusters

51
Q

what can missed doses of phenobarbitol lead to

A

seizures

52
Q

what drug should not be used in seizure patients

A

acepromazine

53
Q

what type of disease is distemper

A

viral

54
Q

what is the medical treatment of hydrocephalus

A

feurosimide or manitol

55
Q

what do embolus symptoms depend on

A

location

56
Q

with IVDD what function will be lost first

A

motor before secondary

57
Q

where is peripheral nerve disease commonly found

A

brachial plexus and caudal cervical nerve roots

58
Q

what are the 2 types of deafness

A

conductive and neural

59
Q

what virus causes rabies

A

rhabdovirus

60
Q

what is rabies incubation period

A

3-8 weeks; up to 6 months

61
Q

what state is rabies free

A

hawaii

62
Q

how soon does death occur with rabies

A

within 10 days

63
Q

what is the diagnosis for rabies

A

direct flourescent antibody test on fresh brain tissue

64
Q

how soon do symptoms usually occur in humans

A

30-50 days

65
Q

how soon does death occur in humans

A

within 3-20 days of symptoms

66
Q

what should be done with a biter who is up to date on rabies vaccine

A

10 day quarantine

67
Q

what should be done with a biter whos rabies vaccine is outdated

A

euthanized or (discuraged) 10 day quarantine

68
Q

up to date animal is bitten by a rabid animal

A

law requires a 90 day quarantine

69
Q

out of date animal is bitten by a rabid animal

A

euthanized or 180 day quarantine

70
Q

human bite with non vaccinated animal

A

euthanazia

71
Q

human bite with vaccinated animal

A

10 day quarantine without vaccine