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VN07 > Circulatory disorders > Flashcards

Circulatory disorders Flashcards

1
Q

what is a diastole?

A

the relaxation phase of the heart beat

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2
Q

what is a systole?

A

the contraction phase of the heartbeat

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3
Q

what is endocarditis?

A
  • infection of the endocardium (inner lining of the heart)
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4
Q

what is endocardiosis?

A

myxomatous degeneration of the valves - mainly involving left atrio-ventricular valves

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5
Q

what is pericarditis?

A

condition where pericardium becomes inflamed
- leads to pericardial effusion where there is too much fluid/swelling and causes heart to swell further

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6
Q

what is cardiac tamponade?

A

ventricles lose ability to fill effectively due to high levels of pressure from fluid around the heart

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7
Q

what is cardiomyopathy?

A

disease of the heart muscle

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8
Q

what is endocarditis caused by?

A

bacteria entering the blood and travelling to the heart

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9
Q

what are some clinical signs of endocarditis?

A

weight loss and lethargy

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10
Q

how do you diagnose endocarditis and endocardiosis?

A
  • blood tests
  • chest x-rays
  • ECG
  • echocardiography
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11
Q

what does mitral insufficiency cause?

A

a back flow of blood and increased effect by the heart which leads to left ventricle hypertrophy

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12
Q

what are some clinical signs of endocardiosis?

A
  • heart murmur
  • coughing
  • ascites
  • lethargy
  • weakness
  • tachy/dysnoea
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13
Q

what side heart failure does pericarditis lead to?

A

right

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14
Q

what are some causes of pericarditis?

A
  • idiopathic
  • tumour
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15
Q

what is pericardial effusion?

A

abnormal fluid accumulation of fluid within the pericardial sac

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16
Q

what are some symptoms of pericarditis?

A
  • anorexia
  • lethargy
  • ascites
  • dyspnoea
  • muffled heart sounds
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17
Q

what sided heart failure does cardiac tamponade result in?

A

right

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18
Q

what does dilated cardiomyopathy cause?

A
  • enlargement/stretching and thinning of the chambers of the heart
  • poor contracting (poor systolic function)
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19
Q

what does dilated cardiomyopathy cause?

A

congestion and heart failure

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20
Q

what are some clinical signs of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A
  • left sided heart failure
  • murmurs
  • arrhythmias
  • sudden death
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21
Q

What does hypertrophic cardiomyopathy cause?

A

thickening of the chambers

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22
Q

what does hypertrophic cardiomyopathy lead to?

A

reduced cardiac output

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23
Q

what are some clinical signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A
  • tachycardia
  • dyspnoea
  • lethargy
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24
Q

what is a diurectic?

A
  • drugs that stimulate the kidneys to remove excess fluid from the body
  • furosemide
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25
Q

what is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor?

A
  • work by lowering blood pressure and reducing the after-load or resistance to blood flowing our of the heart
  • benazepril
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26
Q

what is a cardiac glycosides?

A
  • improve heart function
  • slow heart rate
  • strengthen heart contraction
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27
Q

what is a vasodilator?

A

dilate the arteries or veins so that the heart does not have to work as hard to pump blood

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28
Q

what is a bronchodilator?

A

open the airways to support breathing

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29
Q

what is pimobendan?

A

lowers pressure in the arteries and veins and improves the heart muscle strength which increases blood flow to the body

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30
Q

what. are the two classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A
  • beta blockers
  • calcium channel blockers
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31
Q

what is PDA?

A
  • patent ductus arteriosus
  • a heart defect that occurs when the ductus arteriosus fails to close down at birth
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32
Q

how does the PDA work?

A
  • blood will flow from aorta to PDA into pulmonary artery
  • pulmonary artery recirculates the blood back to the lungs
  • less blood being pumped into main circulation, the left side of the heart is forced to work harder to meet needs of the body
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33
Q

how does size of the PDA defect and heart compare to eachother?

A

the bigger the PDA defect, the larger the heart will grow

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34
Q

what are some clinical signs of a PDA?

A
  • difficulty breathing
  • large heart murmur
  • abnormal pulses
  • exercise intolerance
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35
Q

what is a PRAA?

A
  • persistent right aortic arch
  • type of vascular ring anomaly in dogs
  • results from the failure of a foetal vessel to regress as the neonate develops
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36
Q

what happens when a puppy with PRAA has solid food?

A

the stricture around the oesophagus causes oesophageal dilation leading to regurgitation as the puppy transitions to solid food

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37
Q

what are the medical and surgical treatment of a PRAA?

A
  • medical - feeding tube nutrition
  • surgical - vessel ligation
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38
Q

what is a VSD?

A
  • ventricular septal defect
  • hole between ventricles where oxygenated blood is being recirculated
  • common congenital defect
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39
Q

what will surgical closure of a VSD require?

A

surgical closure needs a cardiopulmonary bypass

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40
Q

what is congestive heart failure?

A

occurs when the heart is unable to pump an adequate amount of blood back to the body

41
Q

what does the inability of the heart to achieve an adequate output result in?

A
  • inadequate supply of oxygen to cells
  • pooling of fluid in. the vascular bed
42
Q

what does right sided congestive heart failure result in?

43
Q

what does left sided congestive heart failure result in?

A

pulmonary oedema

44
Q

what are some clinical signs of CHF?

A
  • exercise intolerance
  • cough
  • tachycardia
  • pale mm/cyanosis
45
Q

what are some treatment options for CHF?

A
  • medication
  • exercise restriction
  • drainage of pleural or peritoneal effusions
  • increase environmental oxygen
46
Q

what is aortic thromboembolism?

A
  • where a thrombus (blood clot) leaves the heart and lodges in the caudal aorta, obstructing blood flow to the hind limbs
  • acute onset of unilateral/bilateral paresis/ paralysis of the hind limbs
47
Q

what are some clinical signs of an aortic thromboembolism?

A
  • vocalisation
  • cold limbs
  • dyspnoea
  • lack of arterial pulse
48
Q

what should blood clots be treated with?

A
  • antithrombotic
  • pain relief
  • vasodilators
49
Q

what is atrial fibrillation?

A
  • dysrhythmia affecting the atria causing them to fibrillate
  • no P wave
  • irregularly irregular QRS wave
50
Q

what is a ventricular premature contraction?

A
  • ventricle prematurely contracts
  • inverted P wave usually after QRS
  • wide QRS wave
51
Q

what is a heart block?

A
  • AV block
  • abnormal electrical conduction from atria to ventricle
52
Q

what is a first degree AV block?

A
  • least severe
  • electrical signals slow down as they move from the atria to the ventricles
53
Q

what is a second degree block?

A
  • electrical signals between atria and ventricles can intermittently fail to conduct
  • two types
54
Q

what are the two types of second degree block?

A
  • mobitz type 1
  • mobitz type 2
55
Q

what is the mobitz type 1 block?

A

electrical signals get slower and slower between beats and eventually the heart skips a beat

56
Q

what is the mobitz type 2 block?

A
  • signals sometimes get to the ventricles but sometimes they dont,
  • no slowing
57
Q

what is a third degree block?

A
  • electrical signals do not go from the atria to the ventricles
  • complete failure of electrical conduction
  • no pulse/slow pulse
58
Q

what is sinus bradycardia?

A

a regular sinus rhythm that is slower than expected for the given species and the situation they are in

59
Q

what is sinus tachycardia?

A

a regular sinus rhythm at a faster rate than normal but generally appropriate for the situation the animal is in
- stress and exercise

60
Q

what is an atrial standstill?

A

abnormal heart rhythm characterised by a lack of P waves

61
Q

what is acute heart failure?

A
  • heart unable to pump enough blood to meet metabolic demands
62
Q

what are some treatment methods for acute heart failure?

A
  • oxygen therapy
  • cardiac massage
  • drug therapy
  • fluid therapy
63
Q

what is anaemia?

A

a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes or quantity of haemoglobin

64
Q

what is erythrocytosis?

A

increased number of red blood cells

65
Q

what is leucocytosis?

A

increased number of white blood cells

66
Q

what is leucopenia?

A

reduced number of white blood cells

67
Q

what is thrombocytopenia?

A

reduced number of platelets

68
Q

what is lymphocytosis?

A

increased number of lymphocytes

69
Q

what is neutropenia?

A

reduced number of neutrophils

70
Q

what is neutrophilia?

A

increased number of neutrophils

71
Q

what is leukaemias?

A

distorted proliferation and development of leucocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow

72
Q

what does haemoglobin do?

A
  • special protein
  • helps carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and then returns carbon dioxide from the body to the lungs to be exhaled
73
Q

where does red blood cell and platelet production happen in young animals?

A

liver and spleen

74
Q

where does red blood cell and platelet production happen in adult animals?

A

bone marrow

75
Q

where are white blood cells produced?

A
  • liver
  • spleen
  • lymph nodes
  • thymus (young animals)
76
Q

what are the two types of anaemia?

A
  • regenerative
  • non-regenerative
77
Q

what is regenerative anaemia?

A

stimulation and production of RBC is normal, reticulocytes present in blood

78
Q

what is non-regenerative anaemia?

A

either no erythropoetin or incapacity of bone marrow to respond so no reticulocytes present

79
Q

what are some clinical signs of anaemia?

A
  • pale MM
  • prolonged CRT
  • tachycardia
  • tachypnoea
  • lethargy
  • petechiation
80
Q

how do you diagnose anaemia?

A
  • clinical exam
  • haematology
  • biochem
  • in saline agglutination test
  • coags
81
Q

what is haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • underlying cause
82
Q

what is haemorrhagic anaemia?

A
  • trauma
  • clotting disorders
  • HGE
  • severe ectoparasite infection
83
Q

what are some clinical signs of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • bruising
  • petechiae
  • oral and nose bleeds
  • anaemia
  • excessive bleeding
84
Q

what are some causes of thrombocytopenia?

A
  • primary immune-mediated
  • secondary immune-mediated
  • consumption
  • bone marrow suppression
85
Q

what is required by the liver to produce clotting factors?

86
Q

what is primary aggregation?

A

when the blood vessel is damaged, platelets clump together

87
Q

what is secondary aggregation?

A

the clumped platelets release chemicals, which induce further platelet aggregation

88
Q

what is blood coagulation?

A

when fibrin is formed from fibrinogen

89
Q

what are some primary clotting disorders?

A
  • von willebrand factor deficiency
  • platelet defect
  • haemophilia
  • blood vessel defect
90
Q

what are some secondary clotting disorders?

A
  • decreased level of clotting factors
  • decreased production of clotting factors
  • increased consumption of clotting factors
91
Q

what are some clinical signs of clotting disorders?

A
  • haemorrhages in the skin (petechial)
  • bleeding into body cavities
  • anaemia
92
Q

what is a way of diagnosing clotting disorders?

A

buccal mucosal bleeding time

93
Q

what is the normal clotting time for dogs and cats?

A
  • dogs - 1.7-4.2 minutes
  • cats - 1.4-2.4 minutes
94
Q

when should you do a blood transfusion for cats and dogs?

A
  • cats - below 15%
  • dogs - below 20%
95
Q

what is a lymphoma?

A
  • cancer of the lymphoid tissue
96
Q

what are some clinical signs of a lymphoma?

A
  • enlarged lymphnodes
  • weight loss
  • anorexia
  • v+/d+
97
Q

what are some clinical signs of leukaemia?

A
  • poor appetite
  • nausea
  • diarrhoea
  • weight loss
98
Q

what happens during ALL?

A

acute lymphocytic leukaemia involves the obliteration of the bone marrow by immature lymphocytes called lymphoblasts

99
Q

what is epistaxis?

A
  • nosebleed
  • investigations such as clotting tests, swabs, rhinoscopy

VN07 (8 decks)

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