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Peds > Chronic Respiratory > Flashcards

Chronic Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

what does asthma consist of

A

airway obstruction, bronchial irritability, edema of mucous membranes, congestions, and spasms of smooth muscles of the bronchi and bronchioles

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2
Q

what type hypersensitivity immune response does asthma have

A

1

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3
Q

what immunoglobulin releases histamine and leukotrienes

A

IgE mediated mast cells

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4
Q

what are the common triggers for asthma

A

pets, exercise, polls, bugs, chemical fumes, cold air, fungus spores, dust, smoke, strong odors, pollution, anger, stress

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5
Q

what are the host factors / risk factors of asthma

A

age (usually show symptoms 4-5Y), heredity, gender, obesity, ethnicity (african american)

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6
Q

what are the environmental risk factors of asthma

A

allergens, infections, tobacco smoke (prenatal or postnatal), indoor or outdoor air pollution, diet (allergic to foods or specific formula)

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7
Q

what are the 10 clinical manifestations of asthma

A

dyspnea
expiratory wheezing
cough
diaphoresis
hacking, non productive cough
prolonged expiratory phase

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8
Q

what are the 9 clinical manifestations of asthma

A

dyspnea
expiratory wheezing
cough
diaphoresis
hacking, non productive cough
prolonged expiratory phase
anxious or restless
coarse rhonchi
signs of respiratory distress

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9
Q

what is helpful in diagnosing asthma

A

pulmonary function tests - specifically peak expiratory flow

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10
Q

what are 6 specific things a nurse can educate on about controlling the environment around a patient that has asthma

A

house dust mite control
pillows/mattress in allergen impermeable covers
cockroach control
dust/wash linens in hot water twice weekly
vacuum weekly
avoid kerosene or wood heat

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11
Q

what type of sensitization is allergy shots

A

hyposensitization

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12
Q

what is the typical medications that are preventer medications for asthma

A

corticosteroids (QVAR, pulmicort, flovent), long acting beta 2 adrenergic agonists (advair, serevent), mast cell stabilizers (cromolyn), leukotriene inhibitors (singulair)

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13
Q

what are the rescue medication that are typical for asthma

A

short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonists / brochodilators (proventil, xopenex, albuterol), methylxanthines

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14
Q

what are the rescue medication that are typical for asthma

A

short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonists / brochodilators (proventil, xopenex, albuterol), methylxanthines

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15
Q

pulmicort is a

A

corticosteroid

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16
Q

QVAR is a

A

corticosteroid

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17
Q

flovent is a

A

corticosteroid

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18
Q

advair is a

A

long acting beta 2 adrenergic agonist

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19
Q

serevent is a

A

long acting beta 2 adrenergic agonist

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20
Q

cromolyn is a

A

mast cell stabilizer

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21
Q

singulair is a

A

leukotriene inhibitor

22
Q

proventil is a

A

short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonist

23
Q

xopenex is a

A

short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonist

24
Q

albuterol is a

A

short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonist

25
Q

green zone of a peak expiratory flow rate is what % of best, and what are the symptoms

A

80-100% of best
no symptoms, minimal coughing, feeling good overall

26
Q

yellow zone of a peak expiratory flow rate is what % of best

A

50-79% of personal best

27
Q

red zone of a peak expiratory flow rate is what % of best

A

below 50% of the personal best

28
Q

what are the 3 things an asthma action plan show you how to recognize

A
  1. recognize well controlled asthma
  2. recognize which symptoms indicate you should pay extra attention and add/increase medication according to the plan
  3. recognize the symptoms of an asthma emergency in which you should provide rescue medication and call 911
29
Q

what are the 4 key nursing interventions for asthma ***

A
  1. high fowlers position
  2. teach child how to use diaphragm to pull in and push out air
  3. control the panic
  4. administer rescue drugs
30
Q

is exercise induced brochospasms considered asthma

A

yes

31
Q

what is exercise induced brochospasms

A

self-terminating airway obstruction that develops during or after vigorous exercise

32
Q

when do exercise induced brochospasms peak

A

5-10 minutes during exercise

33
Q

what is the genetic component of cystic fibrosis

A

it is an autosomal recessive disorder

34
Q

every child born to parents that both have the recessive gene for cystic fibrosis have a what percentage of developing the disorder

A

25%

35
Q

what is the patho behind cystic fibrosis

A

it disrupts the normal functionings of the exocrine glands related to Na+ and CL- transport via the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator protein
this results in impaired fluid secretion and abnormally thick exocrine secretions

36
Q

what are 4 multi-organ effects of cystic fibrosis

A

respiratory, gastrointestinal, reproductive, and hepatic

37
Q

what are the s/s of the pulmonary effects of cystic fibrosis

A

Wheezy cough, increasing dyspnea, thick rattling extremely productive cough, cyanosis, pneumonia, polyps in the nose, clubbed digits, chronic sinusitis

38
Q

what are the GI effects of cystic fibrosis

A

small intestines - intestinal obstructions
pancreatic ducts - degeneration of the pancreas, decreased secretion of digestive enzymes - which can lead to malabsorption syndrome and diabetes

39
Q

in cystic fibrosis what vitamins have a decreased absorption

A

fat soluble, A, D, E, K

40
Q

what are the s/s of the GI effects of cystic fibrosis

A

Appetite changes, steatorrhea (fatty stools), azotorrhea (foul smelling stools), weight loss, tissue wasting, distended abdomen, sallow skin, anemia

41
Q

what are the hepatic effects of cystic fibrosis

A

the bile ducts become clogged which leads to biliary fibrosis and biliary cirrhosis and lead to eventual portal hypertension

42
Q

what are the s/s of the hepatic effects of cystic fibrosis

A

ascites, GI bleeding, jaundice

43
Q

what are the reproductive effects of cystic fibrosis

A

delayed puberty, infertility

44
Q

what value would a sweat chloride test be indicative of cystic fibrosis

A

> 60 mEq / L

45
Q

what does a prenatal diagnosis of cystic fibrous consist of

A

DNA analysis of chorionic villi or amniotic fluid samples

46
Q

what are the 3 specific things nurses can focus on to maximize health potential for those with cystic fibrosis

A

pulmonary hygiene, nutrition, and prevention/early treatment of infection

47
Q

why is it beneficial to do aggressive airway clearance before eating for a patient with cystic fibrosis

A

it increases appetite and decrease vomiting

48
Q

what are the 4 components of aggressive airway clearance for a cystic fibrosis patient

A

percussion, postural drainage, breathing exercise, and physical exercise

49
Q

what are the drugs a patient with cystic fibrosis may be prescribed

A

bronchodilators, mucolytics, chloride channel activators and sodium channel blockers, antibiotic therapy (both therapeutically and prophylactically), pancreatic enzymes, fat soluble enzymes, stool softeners (prn), NaCl during hot weather, iron supplements

50
Q

what are the nutrition needs of a patient with cystic fibrosis

A

high protein, high calorie, unrestricted fat

Peds (12 decks)

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