Chromosome Biology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What types of chromosomal abnormalities can arise?

A
  • Numerical
  • Structural
  • Mutational
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What stages have the highest percentage incidence of abnormalities?

A

First trimester abnormalities - 50%

Children with mental retardation - 35-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name two numerical abnormalities

A
  • Trisomy (extra chromosome)

- Monosomy (loss of chromosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name three trisomy conditions and the abnormality

A
  • Patau: 47,XX+13
  • Edwards: 47,XY+18
  • Down: 47,XX+21
  • Klinefelter: 47,XXY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name a monosomy condition and the abnormality

A

Turner: 45,X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does 46,XX+13 indicate?

A
  • 46 chromosomes
  • XX - the extra chromosome
  • 13 - at which chromosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What problems arise in non-disjunction?

A
  • 1st stage: homologous pair not separated

- 2nd: sister chomatids fail to separate - one cell is disomy (2 copies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an example of an autosomal aneuploidy syndrome?

A

-Trisomy 21 (down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does non-dysjunction cause?

A

Autosomal aneuploidy syndromes - Down, Patau, Edwards (only ones that survivable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Examples of sex chromosomes aneuploidy syndromes?

A
  • Turner

- Klinefelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Examples of structural abnormalities

A
  • Balanced/unbalanced rearrangements
  • Translocations
  • Deletions
  • Insertions
  • Inversions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe balanced translocations

A

Two non-homologous undergo reorganisation - retains same amount of DNA so no severe effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe unbalanced translocations

A

Reorganistion leads to:
-Partial trisomy (extra chromosome)
-Partial monosomy (chromosome missing)
of each chromatid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe Robertsonian translocation

A

Translocation where two acrocentric chromosomes are fused but no DNA is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens in R translocation?

A

Two Q arms join, and two P arms join (usually lost)

-Unbalanced trans. leads to trisomy and monosomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an acrocentric chromosome?

A

Centromere located near one end of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe deletion mutations

A

Interstitial break in chromosome leading to deleted genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe inversion mutations

A

Interstitial break in chromosome and inverted - no loss of DNA (balanced)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name and describe the two types of inversion mutations

A
  • Paracentric - on the arms

- Pericentric - around centromere

20
Q

Examples of genetic mutations

A
  • Germline or somatic
  • Gene disruption
  • Polymorphism
21
Q

Types of genetic mutations

A
  • Non coding

- Coding

22
Q

Give examples of coding mutations

A
  • Silent - no change to AA
  • Missense - change of AA
  • Nonsense - stop codon leading to truncated protein
  • Frameshift -deletion/insertion
23
Q

Cys64Arg

A

AA 64 changed from cys to arg

24
Q

M252X

A

AA 252 codes sor stop codon

25
1294del40
At AA 1294 theres a deletion of 40 nucleotides
26
662-42C>T
42 nucleotides BEFORE 662 change from C to T
27
IVS2+12insG
12 nucleotides into exon theres an insertion of G
28
Methods of detecting mutations
- PCR - Gel electrophoresis - RFLP - ARMS - DNA sequencing
29
What is PCR used for
Amplifying small segments of DNA
30
What is required for PCR?
- Oligonucleotide primers - DNA sample - DNA polymerase (heat resistant)
31
What are the step in PCR?
1. Denaturing: DNA heated into 2 strands (break H bonds) 2. Annealing: temp lowered so DNA primer attached to template DNA 3. Extending: temp increase and DNA polymerase enzyme forms new strand
32
What is the principle of gel electrophoresis?
Separating DNA fragments by size
33
Mechanism of gel electrophoresis
1. Apply an electric field 2. DNA negatively charged due to -ve phosphate backbone and so moves towards +ve electrode 3. Separate through agarose gel matrix 4. Visualise DNA fragments
34
PCR and gel electrophoresis
Gel used to visualised the results of PCR
35
PCR applications
- DNA cloning/sequencing - Gene identification - Mutation detection
36
What is the use of ARMs?
To differentiate between wild type (normal) and mutant alleles
37
Normal primer + wild type allele
Amplification
38
Normal primer + mutant allele
No amplification
39
Mutant primer + wild type allele
No amplification
40
Mutant primer + mutant allele
Amplification
41
What can ARMs be used in combination with?
PCR and Gel electrophoresis
42
What is a disadvantage of PCR?
Primer design is critical - need to know what mutation codes for condition
43
What are restriction endonucleases?
They're enzymes from bacterial cell that degrade the DNA of invading viruses and recognise specific DNA sequences
44
What is RFLP analysis?
Use of restriction endonuclease to cut specific section of DNA and run through gel electrophoresis
45
What can RFLP analysis diagnose?
Sickle cell anaemia - use mutant primer in PCR to show mutant base
46
What is DNA sequencing?
Chain termination method using dideoxynucelotides - from 5' to 3' end