Chp 26/27 Reproductive Flashcards
1
Q
what is the maturation process in which spermatids elongate and shed excess cytoplasm?
A
spermiogenesis
2
Q
what stem cell begins the process of spermatogenesis?
A
spermatogonium
3
Q
diploid cells that will directly undergo meiosis are _____
A
primary spermatocytes
4
Q
the countercurrent heat exchange preventing the testes from overheating takes place between the arterial blood and the ___-
A
pampiniform plexus
5
Q
genetic variability of the daughter cells is achieved by _____
A
crossing over and independent assortment
6
Q
the movement of sperm, testicular fluids, and secretions from the prostate gland and seminal vesicle into the urethra is known as ____
A
emission
7
Q
all of the following structures are part of the ductus system in males except:
A
ureters
8
Q
how many spermatids result from one spermatogonium?
A
4
9
Q
sperm cells will travel, from their formation to ejaculation, through which of the following pathways?
A
seminiferous tubules, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra
10
Q
which of the following ducts travels through the prostate gland?
A
ejaculatory duct
11
Q
enlargement of the prostate gland can constrict the ____
A
ejaculatory duct
12
Q
the process of producing the male gamete, ___, begins at puberty and continues throughout life.
A
spermatogenesis
13
Q
the reduction in the number of chromosomes to half the normal count occurs during _____
A
meiosis
14
Q
males are considered to be infertile if they have sperm count lower than _____ million sperm per milliliter of semen.
A
15 - 20
15
Q
during spermiogenesis, _____ become ______.
A
spermatids; sperm
16
Q
testosterone is produced by ____, which lie between the seminiferous tubules.
A
interstitial cells
17
Q
shortly after birth, the _____ may be removed from the penis during a procedure called circumcision.
A
prepuce
18
Q
stimulation of interstitial cells to secrete testosterone occurs by _____
A
luteinizing hormone (LH)
19
Q
a white, milky, somewhat sticky mixture of sperm and fluids from accessory glands constitutes _____
A
semen
20
Q
erection is:
A
triggered by a parasympathetic reflex
21
Q
homologous chromosomes are arranged randomly on the equator of the cell during ______ of meiosis.
A
metaphase 1
22
Q
during sexual excitement, the ____ fills with blood, which causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid.
A
corpus spongiosum
23
Q
meiosis is a special type of cell division that produces _____
A
gametes
24
Q
which of the following hormones is the primary regulator of spermatogenesis?
A
testosterone
25
the acrosome contains digestive enzymes that _____
help fertilize the female ovum
26
decline in male reproductive functions occur during _____
andropause
27
when it is cold, the ___ contracts to elevate the testes closer to the body.
cremaster muscle
28
what shuffles the alleles and causes homologous chromosomes to no longer be identical during meiosis?
crossing over
29
which of the following structures is not a gland that contributes to the production of semen?
greater vestibular glands
30
mitosis results in ____, whereas meiosis results in ____
two diploid cells; four haploid cells
31
the ____ secrete fructose and prostaglandins into the ____ to provide nutrients for the sperm and increase sperm viability.
seminal vesicles; seminal fluid
32
male and female reproductive systems are similar in all the following ways except:
they both have ova
33
which portion of the penis is called the foreskin?
prepuce
34
an ____ is formed during fertilization, when the sperm and ovum fuse.
zygote
35
the three regions of the male urethra are _____
prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, and spongy urethra
36
which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is not bacterial?
genital herpes
37
what is the main female gonad?
ovary
38
nearly 80 million people are currently infected with ____, the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the United states.
genital warts
39
the internal female genitalia includes the ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and ____
vagina
40
all of the following characteristics are associated with ovulation except:
low estrogen production
41
a couple wants to have sexual intercourse, and they do not wish to use a behavior method as a form of birth control because they know it comes with high risk. which of the following methods is a more reliable alternative?
condoms
42
which portion of the uterus is shed during menstruation?
stratum functionalis of the endometrium
43
the phases of the uterine cycle are:
menstrual, proliferative, and secretory phases
44
all of the following options are effective types of birth control except:
the withdrawal method
45
in females, meiosis is not completed until ______
fertilization occurs
46
a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection that if left untreated can cause pelvic inflammatory disease is _____
chlamydia
47
ovulation depends on which of the following factors?
a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH)
48
a female, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) target the _____
ovaries
49
two small glands that help to lubricate the vagina during intercourse are known as ____
the greater vestibular glands
50
when are all oogonia formed in females?
before birth
51
the female equivalent to the male penis is the _____
clitoris
52
oogenesis takes place in the ____
ovarian cortex
53
what hormones are produced by the ovary?
estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and relaxin
54
the basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that:
in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis, four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
55
where does fertilization usually occur?
ampulla of the uterine tube
56
of the 2 million oogonia formed before birth that begin to undergo meiosis, only about ___ remain at puberty.
300,000
57
which of the following cells can be fertilized?
secondary oocyte
58
the part of the endometrium that undergoes cyclical changes in response to sexual hormone levels is the ___
stratum functionalis
59
the ___ is a large, flat ligament that attaches the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus to the bony pelvis.
broad ligament
60
ciliated, finger-like projections that sweep the oocyte into the uterine tubes during ovulation are known as _____
fimbriae
61
what type of birth control may prevent pregnancy by manipulating the hormones and interfering with ovulation?
hormonal method
62
which of the following phases occurs first during the ovarian cycle?
follicular phase
63
which of the following phases is not part of the ovarian cycle?
proliferative phase
64
the primary function of the uterus is to _____
receive, protect, and nourish a fertilized ovum
65
oogenesis in a female begins _____
before birth
66
if fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum ______
degrades into the corpus albicans
67
which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is linked with many cases of cervical cancer?
human papillomavirus (HPV)
68
mammary glands are part of the ____ system and are only important after reproduction has occurred.
integumentary
69
female reproductive capabilities end and reproductive organs begin to atrophy during _____
menopause
70
assuming a 28-day ovarian cycle, on what day should ovulation occur?
day 14
71
the ovaries and uterus are connected via the ______
uterine tubes
72
which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) may be prevented with a vaccine?
human papillomavirus (HPV)
73
one of the main functions of the female reproductive tract is:
to support a developing offspring from conception through birth.
74
all of the following structures are part of the female genitalia except the:
urethra
75
what prevents polyspermy from occuring?
cortical reaction
76
what results from the fertilization of a sperm cell and secondary oocyte?
zygote
77
which extraembryonic membrane becomes a part of the urinary bladder?
allantois
78
in humans, from which extraembryonic membrane will the first blood cells arise?
yolk sac
79
what process makes sperm fully motile and modified its plasma membrane so it can fuse with an oocyte?
capacitation
80
which extraembryonic membrane forms the embryonic part of the placenta?
chorion
81
what hormone suppresses menstruation during pregnancy?
progesterone
82
what must the sperm penetrate first to reach the secondary oocyte?
corona radiata
83
which of the following functions is not associated with amniotic fluid?
provides nutrition for the developing embryo
84
the growing offspring is generally referred to as the ____
conceptus
85
what is the degeneration of tissues and organs in adulthood called?
senescence
86
the conceptus forms rudimentary organ systems during the _____
embryonic period
87
what stimulates the cortical reaction?
sperm entry
88
what is the science that studies the changes in form and function that begins at fertilization, with the union of gametes, and continues throughout life?
developmental biology
89
which of the following structures releases human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
syncytiotrophoblast
90
the 16-cell stage is known as the ___
morula
91
which of the following factors promotes a sperm's ability to fertilize an egg?
high estrogen levels in a women promote sperm motility
92
which part of the embryo contributes to the fetal portion of the placenta?
trophoblast
93
when do the extraembryonic membranes first appear?
during the 2nd week of development
94
which of the following terms describes the rapid mitotic divisions of a conceptus in the pre-embryonic period?
cleavage
95
what hormone is detected in a pregnancy test?
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
96
what term refers to a conceptus implanting and growing in any location other than the endometrium of the uterus?
ectopic pregnancy
97
which of the following structures implants in, or attaches to, the endometrium of the uterus?
blastocyst
98
sperm can remain viable in the female's reproductive tract for up to _____
5 days
99
which of the following periods is not categorized as prenatal?
infancy
100
the fusion of a sperm cell and secondary oocyte is known as _______
fertilization
101
which germ layer forms the majority of the nervous system and sense organs?
ectoderm
102
during which month of prenatal development will the fetus begin to produce surfactant?
month 6
103
which germ layer forms the skeleton and most muscles?
mesoderm
104
which of the following vascular shunts connects the fetal left and right atria?
foramen ovale
105
when a part or all of the placenta attaches to the inferior portion of the uterus, near or even covering the cervix, it results in ______
placenta previa
106
which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta?
oxytocin
107
during which month of prenatal development will the fetus begin to form blood cells in bone marrow?
months 8-9
108
by what week of prenatal development will the placenta be established?
week 12
109
what is the first major event of organogenesis?
neurulation
110
which of the following components of blood do not pass through the placental barrier between maternal and fetal blood supplies?
blood cells
111
what process is responsible for the formation of the three germ layers?
gastrulation
112
approximately how many days after fertilization is a fetus considered full-term and ready to be born?
266 days
113
which region of a somite develops into the vertebrae and ribs?
sclerotome
114
which germ layer forms the pancreas and epithelium lining the digestive and respiratory tract?
endoderm
115
during which month of prenatal development will ossification begin in most bones?
month 3
116
which of the following structures is not associated with the mesoderm?
neural tube
117
what structure allows blood to move from the fetal pulmonary trunk directly into the aorta?
ductus arteriosus
118
during organogenesis exposure to which of the following substances can cause severe birth defects or even death?
teratogens
119
which of the following structures is a remnant of fetal circulation that is present after birth?
ligamentum teres
120
along which line of the embryo does the primitive streak form?
cephalic-caudal
121
the inner germ layer is the ______
endoderm
122
what connects the placenta to the fetus?
umbilical cord
123
a positive feedback mechanism initiates the rhythmic contractions of labor. what hormones are involved in this feedback loop?
prostaglandins and oxytocin
124
which of the following hormones is not associated with postpartum depression?
relaxin
125
what is the best fetal position for birth?
vertex position
126
what hormone stimulates the let-down reflex?
oxytocin
127
what antibodies are acquired passively from mother through the placenta?
IgG
128
which fetal hormone initiates labor?
cortisol
129
which of the following is not a function of the hormone progesterone?
promotes reabsorption of sodium ions from kidney tubules
130
after birth, the mother may lose excess fluid from the uterus as ___
lochia
131
why is it important for the afterbirth to be delivered?
to stop uterine bleeding
132
which of the following stages is not a subdivision of labor?
placentation
133
what is an episiotomy?
an incision to widen the vaginal orifice
134
which of the following characteristics is an important feature of colostrum?
rich in IgA antibodies
135
the initial stimulus for labor comes from the ___
fetus
136
the cervix is fully dilated at ______
10 cm
137
what major event occurs during the first stage of labor?
the cervix thins and dilates
138
parturition is also known as ____
childbirth
139
which of the following sequences is the correct order of hormones released during the initiation and regulation of childbirth?
cortisol, estrogen, oxytocin, prostaglandins
140
what is the neonatal period?
the first 4 weeks of life
141
the apgar score is assigned for several criteria measured at birth. what is not measured>
defecation
