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A&P > Chp 26/27 Reproductive > Flashcards

Chp 26/27 Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

what is the maturation process in which spermatids elongate and shed excess cytoplasm?

A

spermiogenesis

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2
Q

what stem cell begins the process of spermatogenesis?

A

spermatogonium

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3
Q

diploid cells that will directly undergo meiosis are _____

A

primary spermatocytes

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4
Q

the countercurrent heat exchange preventing the testes from overheating takes place between the arterial blood and the ___-

A

pampiniform plexus

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5
Q

genetic variability of the daughter cells is achieved by _____

A

crossing over and independent assortment

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6
Q

the movement of sperm, testicular fluids, and secretions from the prostate gland and seminal vesicle into the urethra is known as ____

A

emission

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7
Q

all of the following structures are part of the ductus system in males except:

A

ureters

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8
Q

how many spermatids result from one spermatogonium?

A

4

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9
Q

sperm cells will travel, from their formation to ejaculation, through which of the following pathways?

A

seminiferous tubules, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra

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10
Q

which of the following ducts travels through the prostate gland?

A

ejaculatory duct

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11
Q

enlargement of the prostate gland can constrict the ____

A

ejaculatory duct

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12
Q

the process of producing the male gamete, ___, begins at puberty and continues throughout life.

A

spermatogenesis

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13
Q

the reduction in the number of chromosomes to half the normal count occurs during _____

A

meiosis

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14
Q

males are considered to be infertile if they have sperm count lower than _____ million sperm per milliliter of semen.

A

15 - 20

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15
Q

during spermiogenesis, _____ become ______.

A

spermatids; sperm

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16
Q

testosterone is produced by ____, which lie between the seminiferous tubules.

A

interstitial cells

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17
Q

shortly after birth, the _____ may be removed from the penis during a procedure called circumcision.

A

prepuce

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18
Q

stimulation of interstitial cells to secrete testosterone occurs by _____

A

luteinizing hormone (LH)

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19
Q

a white, milky, somewhat sticky mixture of sperm and fluids from accessory glands constitutes _____

A

semen

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20
Q

erection is:

A

triggered by a parasympathetic reflex

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21
Q

homologous chromosomes are arranged randomly on the equator of the cell during ______ of meiosis.

A

metaphase 1

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22
Q

during sexual excitement, the ____ fills with blood, which causes the penis to enlarge and become rigid.

A

corpus spongiosum

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23
Q

meiosis is a special type of cell division that produces _____

A

gametes

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24
Q

which of the following hormones is the primary regulator of spermatogenesis?

A

testosterone

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25
Q

the acrosome contains digestive enzymes that _____

A

help fertilize the female ovum

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26
Q

decline in male reproductive functions occur during _____

A

andropause

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27
Q

when it is cold, the ___ contracts to elevate the testes closer to the body.

A

cremaster muscle

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28
Q

what shuffles the alleles and causes homologous chromosomes to no longer be identical during meiosis?

A

crossing over

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29
Q

which of the following structures is not a gland that contributes to the production of semen?

A

greater vestibular glands

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30
Q

mitosis results in ____, whereas meiosis results in ____

A

two diploid cells; four haploid cells

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31
Q

the ____ secrete fructose and prostaglandins into the ____ to provide nutrients for the sperm and increase sperm viability.

A

seminal vesicles; seminal fluid

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32
Q

male and female reproductive systems are similar in all the following ways except:

A

they both have ova

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33
Q

which portion of the penis is called the foreskin?

A

prepuce

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34
Q

an ____ is formed during fertilization, when the sperm and ovum fuse.

A

zygote

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35
Q

the three regions of the male urethra are _____

A

prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, and spongy urethra

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36
Q

which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is not bacterial?

A

genital herpes

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37
Q

what is the main female gonad?

A

ovary

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38
Q

nearly 80 million people are currently infected with ____, the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the United states.

A

genital warts

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39
Q

the internal female genitalia includes the ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and ____

A

vagina

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40
Q

all of the following characteristics are associated with ovulation except:

A

low estrogen production

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41
Q

a couple wants to have sexual intercourse, and they do not wish to use a behavior method as a form of birth control because they know it comes with high risk. which of the following methods is a more reliable alternative?

A

condoms

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42
Q

which portion of the uterus is shed during menstruation?

A

stratum functionalis of the endometrium

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43
Q

the phases of the uterine cycle are:

A

menstrual, proliferative, and secretory phases

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44
Q

all of the following options are effective types of birth control except:

A

the withdrawal method

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45
Q

in females, meiosis is not completed until ______

A

fertilization occurs

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46
Q

a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection that if left untreated can cause pelvic inflammatory disease is _____

A

chlamydia

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47
Q

ovulation depends on which of the following factors?

A

a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH)

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48
Q

a female, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) target the _____

A

ovaries

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49
Q

two small glands that help to lubricate the vagina during intercourse are known as ____

A

the greater vestibular glands

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50
Q

when are all oogonia formed in females?

A

before birth

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51
Q

the female equivalent to the male penis is the _____

A

clitoris

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52
Q

oogenesis takes place in the ____

A

ovarian cortex

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53
Q

what hormones are produced by the ovary?

A

estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and relaxin

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54
Q

the basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that:

A

in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis, four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell

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55
Q

where does fertilization usually occur?

A

ampulla of the uterine tube

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56
Q

of the 2 million oogonia formed before birth that begin to undergo meiosis, only about ___ remain at puberty.

A

300,000

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57
Q

which of the following cells can be fertilized?

A

secondary oocyte

58
Q

the part of the endometrium that undergoes cyclical changes in response to sexual hormone levels is the ___

A

stratum functionalis

59
Q

the ___ is a large, flat ligament that attaches the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus to the bony pelvis.

A

broad ligament

60
Q

ciliated, finger-like projections that sweep the oocyte into the uterine tubes during ovulation are known as _____

A

fimbriae

61
Q

what type of birth control may prevent pregnancy by manipulating the hormones and interfering with ovulation?

A

hormonal method

62
Q

which of the following phases occurs first during the ovarian cycle?

A

follicular phase

63
Q

which of the following phases is not part of the ovarian cycle?

A

proliferative phase

64
Q

the primary function of the uterus is to _____

A

receive, protect, and nourish a fertilized ovum

65
Q

oogenesis in a female begins _____

A

before birth

66
Q

if fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum ______

A

degrades into the corpus albicans

67
Q

which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is linked with many cases of cervical cancer?

A

human papillomavirus (HPV)

68
Q

mammary glands are part of the ____ system and are only important after reproduction has occurred.

A

integumentary

69
Q

female reproductive capabilities end and reproductive organs begin to atrophy during _____

A

menopause

70
Q

assuming a 28-day ovarian cycle, on what day should ovulation occur?

A

day 14

71
Q

the ovaries and uterus are connected via the ______

A

uterine tubes

72
Q

which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) may be prevented with a vaccine?

A

human papillomavirus (HPV)

73
Q

one of the main functions of the female reproductive tract is:

A

to support a developing offspring from conception through birth.

74
Q

all of the following structures are part of the female genitalia except the:

A

urethra

75
Q

what prevents polyspermy from occuring?

A

cortical reaction

76
Q

what results from the fertilization of a sperm cell and secondary oocyte?

A

zygote

77
Q

which extraembryonic membrane becomes a part of the urinary bladder?

A

allantois

78
Q

in humans, from which extraembryonic membrane will the first blood cells arise?

A

yolk sac

79
Q

what process makes sperm fully motile and modified its plasma membrane so it can fuse with an oocyte?

A

capacitation

80
Q

which extraembryonic membrane forms the embryonic part of the placenta?

A

chorion

81
Q

what hormone suppresses menstruation during pregnancy?

A

progesterone

82
Q

what must the sperm penetrate first to reach the secondary oocyte?

A

corona radiata

83
Q

which of the following functions is not associated with amniotic fluid?

A

provides nutrition for the developing embryo

84
Q

the growing offspring is generally referred to as the ____

A

conceptus

85
Q

what is the degeneration of tissues and organs in adulthood called?

A

senescence

86
Q

the conceptus forms rudimentary organ systems during the _____

A

embryonic period

87
Q

what stimulates the cortical reaction?

A

sperm entry

88
Q

what is the science that studies the changes in form and function that begins at fertilization, with the union of gametes, and continues throughout life?

A

developmental biology

89
Q

which of the following structures releases human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

A

syncytiotrophoblast

90
Q

the 16-cell stage is known as the ___

A

morula

91
Q

which of the following factors promotes a sperm’s ability to fertilize an egg?

A

high estrogen levels in a women promote sperm motility

92
Q

which part of the embryo contributes to the fetal portion of the placenta?

A

trophoblast

93
Q

when do the extraembryonic membranes first appear?

A

during the 2nd week of development

94
Q

which of the following terms describes the rapid mitotic divisions of a conceptus in the pre-embryonic period?

A

cleavage

95
Q

what hormone is detected in a pregnancy test?

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

96
Q

what term refers to a conceptus implanting and growing in any location other than the endometrium of the uterus?

A

ectopic pregnancy

97
Q

which of the following structures implants in, or attaches to, the endometrium of the uterus?

A

blastocyst

98
Q

sperm can remain viable in the female’s reproductive tract for up to _____

A

5 days

99
Q

which of the following periods is not categorized as prenatal?

A

infancy

100
Q

the fusion of a sperm cell and secondary oocyte is known as _______

A

fertilization

101
Q

which germ layer forms the majority of the nervous system and sense organs?

A

ectoderm

102
Q

during which month of prenatal development will the fetus begin to produce surfactant?

A

month 6

103
Q

which germ layer forms the skeleton and most muscles?

A

mesoderm

104
Q

which of the following vascular shunts connects the fetal left and right atria?

A

foramen ovale

105
Q

when a part or all of the placenta attaches to the inferior portion of the uterus, near or even covering the cervix, it results in ______

A

placenta previa

106
Q

which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta?

A

oxytocin

107
Q

during which month of prenatal development will the fetus begin to form blood cells in bone marrow?

A

months 8-9

108
Q

by what week of prenatal development will the placenta be established?

A

week 12

109
Q

what is the first major event of organogenesis?

A

neurulation

110
Q

which of the following components of blood do not pass through the placental barrier between maternal and fetal blood supplies?

A

blood cells

111
Q

what process is responsible for the formation of the three germ layers?

A

gastrulation

112
Q

approximately how many days after fertilization is a fetus considered full-term and ready to be born?

A

266 days

113
Q

which region of a somite develops into the vertebrae and ribs?

A

sclerotome

114
Q

which germ layer forms the pancreas and epithelium lining the digestive and respiratory tract?

A

endoderm

115
Q

during which month of prenatal development will ossification begin in most bones?

A

month 3

116
Q

which of the following structures is not associated with the mesoderm?

A

neural tube

117
Q

what structure allows blood to move from the fetal pulmonary trunk directly into the aorta?

A

ductus arteriosus

118
Q

during organogenesis exposure to which of the following substances can cause severe birth defects or even death?

A

teratogens

119
Q

which of the following structures is a remnant of fetal circulation that is present after birth?

A

ligamentum teres

120
Q

along which line of the embryo does the primitive streak form?

A

cephalic-caudal

121
Q

the inner germ layer is the ______

A

endoderm

122
Q

what connects the placenta to the fetus?

A

umbilical cord

123
Q

a positive feedback mechanism initiates the rhythmic contractions of labor. what hormones are involved in this feedback loop?

A

prostaglandins and oxytocin

124
Q

which of the following hormones is not associated with postpartum depression?

A

relaxin

125
Q

what is the best fetal position for birth?

A

vertex position

126
Q

what hormone stimulates the let-down reflex?

A

oxytocin

127
Q

what antibodies are acquired passively from mother through the placenta?

A

IgG

128
Q

which fetal hormone initiates labor?

A

cortisol

129
Q

which of the following is not a function of the hormone progesterone?

A

promotes reabsorption of sodium ions from kidney tubules

130
Q

after birth, the mother may lose excess fluid from the uterus as ___

A

lochia

131
Q

why is it important for the afterbirth to be delivered?

A

to stop uterine bleeding

132
Q

which of the following stages is not a subdivision of labor?

A

placentation

133
Q

what is an episiotomy?

A

an incision to widen the vaginal orifice

134
Q

which of the following characteristics is an important feature of colostrum?

A

rich in IgA antibodies

135
Q

the initial stimulus for labor comes from the ___

A

fetus

136
Q

the cervix is fully dilated at ______

A

10 cm

137
Q

what major event occurs during the first stage of labor?

A

the cervix thins and dilates

138
Q

parturition is also known as ____

A

childbirth

139
Q

which of the following sequences is the correct order of hormones released during the initiation and regulation of childbirth?

A

cortisol, estrogen, oxytocin, prostaglandins

140
Q

what is the neonatal period?

A

the first 4 weeks of life

141
Q

the apgar score is assigned for several criteria measured at birth. what is not measured>

A

defecation

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