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MTAP 1 > Chemistry week 4 > Flashcards

Chemistry week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Single, short-term exposure

A

Acute toxicity

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2
Q

Dose is sufficient to cause immediate toxic effects

A

Acute toxicity

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3
Q

Repeated and frequent exposure for extended period of time

A

Chronic toxicity

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4
Q

Dose that are insufficient to cause immediate acute response

A

Chronic toxicity

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5
Q

Grain alcohol

A

Ethanol

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6
Q

Seen in alcoholic beverages

A

Ethanol

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7
Q

Most common abused drug

A

Ethanol

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8
Q

Wood alcohol

A

Methanol

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9
Q

Converted into formaldehyde, then finally to formic acid

A

Methanol

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10
Q

1,2 - ethanediol

A

Ethylene glycol

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11
Q

Deposition of calcium oxalate (monohydrate) crystals in renal tubules is caused by

A

Ethylene glycol

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12
Q

Rubbing alcohol

A

Isopropanol

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13
Q

can cause CNS depression and hypertension. Can also increase acetone in the blood and urine

A

Isopropanol

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14
Q

Leftward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve resulting in a decrease in the amount of oxygen delivered to the tissue

A

Carbon monoxide

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15
Q

Cherry red color of the blood and the face

A

Carbon monoxide poisoining

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16
Q

Units of carbon monoxide in blood

A

%

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16
Q

units of carbon monoxide in air

A

ppm

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17
Q

Common suicide agent

A

Cyanide

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18
Q

Bitter almonds odor

A

Cyanide

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19
Q

_____ are the most abundant pesticides and are responsible for about one-third of all pesticide poisoning

A

Organophosphates

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20
Q

Decreased levels of this are seen in pesticides poisoning

A

Pseudocholinesterase

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21
Q

Strong affinity to keratin

A

Arsenic

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22
Q

Mee’s line

A

Arsenic

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23
Q

Specimen for short-term exposure of arsenic

A

Urine and blood

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24
Q

Specimen for long-term exposure of arsenic

A

Hair or nails

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25
Q

Garlic breath

A

Arsenic

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26
Q

Can cause tubular proteinuria, glucosuria, and aminoaciduria
Defect in tubular reabsorption

A

Cadmium

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27
Q

(+) GGT in sample

A

Cadmium toxicity

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28
Q

Acquired via skin contact, inhalation, and ingestion (except animal bite)

A

Lead poisoning

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29
Q

Plumbism

A

Lead poisoning

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30
Q

Interferes with vitamin D and heme synthesis
can lead to anemia (microcytic, hypochromic,)

A

Lead

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31
Q

Basophilic stippling can be seen in?

A

Lead poisoning

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32
Q

Sample for lead testing

A

Whole blood

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33
Q

Anticoagulant for lead testing

A

EDTA (tan top)

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34
Q

Mercury is acquired though

A

inhalation, skin absorption, and ingestion

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35
Q

Erethism, and Pink disease (acrodynia) is caused by

A

Elemental mercury

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36
Q

Congenital minimata disease is caused by

A

Alkyl mercury

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37
Q

Cocaine, benzoylecgonine (cocaine metabolite), Amphetamines, Methamphteamines

A

CNS stimulants

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38
Q

Barbiturates, Methaqualone, Benzodiazepines, Oxycodone, Morphine, Heroine, Codeine, Methadone

A

CNS depressants

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39
Q

Cannabinoids (Marijuana), Phencyclidine (PCP)

A

Hallucinogens

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40
Q

Lithium, Tricyclic antidepressants

A

Antidepressant

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41
Q

Most potent and abundant cannabinoid

A

Marijuana

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42
Q

Only prohibited drug that can be positive for45 days (long half-life)

A

Marijuana

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43
Q

Half-life is 0.5 to 1 hour

A

Cocaine

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44
Q

Amphetamine derivative commonly referred to as ecstacy

A

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)

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45
Q

Reference method for drugs of abuse detection

A

GCMS

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46
Q

Temp of urine for drug test

A

32.5 to 37.7 C

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47
Q

Volume of urine for drug test

A

60 mL

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48
Q

Trained to examine the nature of those effects

A

Toxicologist

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49
Q

Describes the degree to which a substance is poisonous or can cause injury

A

Toxicity

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50
Q

Concerned with health effects from exposure to chemicals in the workplace

A

Occupational/Industrial toxicology

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51
Q

Includes the evaluation of environmental chemical pollutants and their impact on human health

A

Environmental toxicology

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52
Q

Gathers and evaluate existing toxicological information to establish concentration-based standard of “safe” exposure

A

Regulatory toxicology

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53
Q

Involved in delivering a safe and edible supply of food to the consumer

A

Food toxicology

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54
Q

Concerned with diseases illnesses associated with short term or long-term exposure to toxic chemicals

A

Clinical toxicology

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55
Q

Concerned with gathering toxicological information from animal experimentation

A

Descriptive toxicology

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56
Q

Used to help establish cause and effect relationships between exposure to a drug or chemical and the toxic or lethal effects that results from the exposure

A

Forensic toxicology

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57
Q

Identifies the toxicant through analysis of body fluids, stomach content, excrement, or skin

A

Analytical toxicology

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58
Q

Makes observation on how toxic substances cause their effects

A

Mechanistic toxicology

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59
Q

Any chemical that can injure or kill humans, animals, or plants

A

Toxicant

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60
Q

Usually used when talking about toxic substances produced naturally

A

Toxin

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61
Q

Those that are damaging to either the survival or normal function of the individual

A

Adverse effect

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62
Q

Poisonous or deadly effects on the body by inhalation, ingestion, or absorption, or by direct contact

A

Toxic

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63
Q

State of decreased responsiveness to a toxic effect of a chemical resulting from a prior exposure to the chemical or structurally related chemical

A

Tolerance

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64
Q

Defined as a exogenous agents that may have an adverse effect on a living organism

A

Xenobiotics

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65
Q

Also exogenous agents that have an adverse effect on a biological system

A

Poisons

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66
Q

Endogenous substances that are biologically synthesized either in living cells or in microorganisms

A

Toxins

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67
Q

Transformation in chemical cause by the activity of hepatocytes (cytochrome p450 isoenzyme)

A

Xenobiotic biotransformation

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68
Q

Two major organ which are mostly the target organ

A

Liver and Kidney

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69
Q

The amount of chemical entering the body

A

Dose

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70
Q

Dose is dependent upon

A

Environmental concentration
Properties of the toxicant
Frequency of exposure
Length of exposure
Exposure pathway

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71
Q

Increasing response, increasing dose

A

Graded dose response

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72
Q

No particular dose conder fetal or lethal to individual

A

Quantal dose response

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73
Q

Grading for toxicology
Low dose =
0-1 =
2-3 =
4 =

A

Low dose = Low response
0-1 = No observed adverse effect level
2-3 = Linear range
4 = Maximum response

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74
Q

The toxic dose (toxic response)

A

TD50

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75
Q

The lethal dose (Death)

A

LD50

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76
Q

The effective dose

A

ED50

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77
Q

The median lethal concentration

A

LC50

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78
Q

Toxic symptoms are expressed after repeated applications for a timeframe less than half the life expectancy of the organisms

A

Subchronic exposure

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79
Q

Can drastically effect the rate of clearance of compounds

A

Biotransformation metabolism

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80
Q

Common CNS depressant
Caused disorientation, euphoria, confusion and progress to unconsciousness, paralysis and even death

A

Alcohols

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81
Q

How alcohol metabolized

A

Alcohol > ADH > Aldehyde > ADH > Acid

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82
Q

Ethanol will be converted into ____, catalyzed by the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, and will be further oxidized into ____ as catalyzes by ADH

A

Acetaldehyde, acetic acid

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83
Q

Alcohol leaves the body in the average range of

A

0.015 g/100 ml/hr

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84
Q

Marker for chronic alcoholism

A

GGT

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85
Q

Methanol is converted first to _____, then finally to ____ by hepatic ALDH

A

Formaldehyde, Formic acid

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86
Q

No obvious impairment, some changes observable on performance testing

A

0.01 - 0.05

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87
Q

Mild euphoria, decreased inhibitions, some impairment of motor skill

A

0.03-0.12

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88
Q

Decreased inhibitions, loss of critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished reaction time

A

0.09-0.25

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89
Q

Mental confusion, dizziness, strongly impaired motor skills

A

0.18 - 0.30

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90
Q

Unable to stand or walk, vomiting, impaired consciousness

A

0.27 - 0.40

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91
Q

Coma and possible death

A

0.35 - 0.50

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92
Q

Fatal dose of methanol

A

60-250 mL

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93
Q

Treatment for methanol poisoning

A

Administration of ethanol or preferably fomepizole to inhibit the metabolism of methanol

Sodium bicarbonate therapy to help alleviate the metabolic acidosis

Folate administration to enhance folate-mediated metabolism of formate

The use of hemodialysis to enhance clearance of methanol and formate

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94
Q

Antifreeze

A

Ethylene Glycol (1,2 Ethanediol)

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95
Q

COBH % in nonsmokers

A

0.5%

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96
Q

COBH % in smokers

A

5-15%

97
Q

COBH % shortness of breath with vigorous exercise

A

10%

98
Q

COBH % shortness of breath with moderate exercise

A

20%

99
Q

COBH % sever headaches, fatigue, impairment of judgment

A

30%

100
Q

COBH % Confusion, fainting on exertion

A

40-50%

101
Q

COBH % Unconscious, resp failure, death with continuous exposure

A

60-70%

102
Q

COBH % immediately fatal

A

80%

103
Q

Common suicide agent that is a component of insecticides and rodenticides

A

Cyanide

104
Q

Non toxic product of cyanide

A

Thiocyanate

105
Q

Because of cyanohemoglobin in blood circulation

A

Pink mauve discoloration

106
Q

Corrective therapy for cyanide

A

Dilution

107
Q

Aspirin
Acetaminophen

A

Anti-inflammatory

108
Q

Theophylline, Theobromine

A

Bronchodilators

109
Q

Digoxin, Procainamide, Quinidine, Lidocaine, Propranolol, Amlodarone, Verapamil

A

Cardiotropic

110
Q

Phenobarbitals, Phenytoin, Primidone, Ethosuximide, Carbamazepine, Vaproic acid

A

Anticonvulsants

111
Q

Cyclosporine, Tarcolimus, Rapamycin, Mycophenolate motefil, Leflunomide

A

Immunosuppresive

112
Q

Aminoglycosides, Vancomycin, Chloramphenicol

A

Antibiotics

113
Q

Lithium, TCA, Fluoxetine

A

Psychoactive drugs

114
Q

Methotrexate, Busulfan

A

Chemotherapeutic agents

115
Q

Also known as salycylate

A

Aspirin

116
Q

Also known as Paracetamol

A

Acetaminophen

117
Q

Acetaminophen is toxic to?

A

Liver (hepatotoxic)

118
Q

Ototoxic, Nephrotoxic, Kills gram neg bacteria

A

Aminoglycosides

119
Q

Kills gram-pos bacteria, ototoxicity, Nephrotoxicity, Red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

120
Q

Produces Aplastic anemia

A

Chlorampenicol

121
Q

Specimen of choice for TDM

A

Serum and plasma

122
Q

Anticoagulant of choice for TDM

A

Heparin

EDTA, Citrate, or oxalate are unacceptable except for cyclosporine and tacrolimus

123
Q

Trough level are drawn _____
It represents the ____ in the blood and ensure the drug is in the therapeutic range

A

right before the next dose, lowest level

124
Q

Peak level intravenous

A

After 30 minutes of injection of drugs

125
Q

Peak level intramuscular

A

After 1 hour of injection of drugs

126
Q

Peak level oral

A

After 1 to 2 hours of ingestion of drugs

127
Q

5 pharmacological parameters of drugs (LADME)

A

Liberation, Absorption, Distribution, Metabolize, Excrete

128
Q

Considered as downers, gives the feeling of calmness, deep sleep, and no pain

A

Narcotics

129
Q

Derived from opium poppy (Papaver somniferum)

A

Opiates

130
Q

Binds to mu-receptor in the limbic system

A

Morphine

131
Q

Enables to suppress/decrease the feeling of pain.

A

Analgesic

132
Q

Antitussive

A

Codeine

133
Q

Extract obtained in the plants, it will be mixed with chemical such as petroleum products. Then, it will be subjected to extraction until the needed end product is obtained

A

Heroin

134
Q

Also used as analgesic

A

Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

135
Q

Depress the CNS and are used therapeutically as analgesics, cough suppressants, and against diarrhea.

A

Opiates

136
Q

Antagonist for opiate overdose

A

Naloxone

137
Q

Major metabolite of opiate

A

N-acetylmorphine or morphine in general

138
Q

Synthetic form of opiates.
It is relatively potent, easily dissolved in water for injecting and penetrates the blood-brain barrier
Obtained as powder then mixed w/ diluent that is injected through IV

A

Heroin

139
Q

Half life is 4-6 hours
Chasing the dragon method

A

Heroin

140
Q

Blanco, brown sugar, Kabayo, Kengkoy, Gamot, matsakao, pulbos, sapsap, tinik

A

Heroin

141
Q

M, dreamer, Emma, Emsel, Pulbos

A

Morphine

142
Q

Schoolboy

A

Codeine

143
Q

Having an “up” quality to user
Referred to as uppers
Induce temporary improvements in mental or physical functions

A

Stimulants

144
Q

Used to treat narcolepsy before

A

Amphetamine

145
Q

Most common Amphetamine containing medications for ADHD

A

Adderall

146
Q

Made up of methamphetamine sulfate

A

Crank

147
Q

Made up of methamphetamine hydrochloride

A

Crystal

148
Q

A colorless and odorless concentration of methamphetamine

A

Ice

149
Q

SHABU, Ice, meth, shabs, ubas, siopao, sha, poor man’s coccaine, uppers, speed

A

Methamphetamine

150
Q

Ephedrine, psuedoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine

A

Amphetamine like compound that is medications for coughs and colds

151
Q

MDMA

A

ecstasy or molly

152
Q

Affects the level of serotonin

A

MDMA

153
Q

Depression is a common after-effect of

A

MDMA use

Because serotonin is depleted after the burst of excretion by the use of MDMA

154
Q

C.N, coke, crack, gold dust, heaven’s dust, stardust, white girl, speedballs

A

Cocaine

155
Q

Derived from the leaves of coca plant (erythroxylon coca)

A

Cocaine

156
Q

Stimulants of the CNS that acts on dopamine

A

Cocaine

157
Q

Cocaine screenings test for drugs

A

Spot test

158
Q

Benzoylecgonine

A

Cocaine metabolite

159
Q

C.N, Marijuana, Cannabis, Indian hemp, pot, grass, weed, refer, dope, maryjane, sinosomilla, damo,acapulco gold, flower, pampa-pogi

A

Cannabinoids

160
Q

Delta-9-tetra-hydrocanabinol

A

The principal psychoactive component of cannabinoids

161
Q

More concentrated form of marijuana

A

Hashish

162
Q

Can remain in the body 1 month after consumption

A

Lipophilic (cannabinoids)

163
Q

Detected time in urine cannabinoids

A

3-5 days; for chronic user 4 weeks

164
Q

11-nordeltatetrahydrocannabinol

A

Urine metabolite of cannabinoid

165
Q

A synthetic dissociative drug originally developed as a general anesthetic

A

Phencyclidine

166
Q

Angel dust/ Angel hair, Amoeba, Amp, Belladona, Animal trank, Zoom

A

PCP (straight)

167
Q

Wet, Dust blunt, Happy, Stick, Fry sticks, Love boat

A

Marijuana/PCP combination

168
Q

Elephant flipping, Pikachu

A

PCP and MDMA

169
Q

Causes undulating vision

A

Lysergic acid diethylamide

170
Q

Most common form of LSD is

A

Blotter acid - sheets of paper that have been laced with lsd

171
Q

Tablets LSD form

A

Microdots

172
Q

Used for inducing sleep especially in patients who are in
heightened feeling of pain

A

Benzodiazepine

173
Q

Widely used, not to lead general anesthesia or death.

A

Benzodiazepines

174
Q

The older sedative-hypnotics, general depression of CNS.

A

Barbiturates

175
Q

Major metabolite of sedatives

A

Secobarbital

176
Q

To measure and monitor circulating drug levels primarily in serum, plasma, or whole blood

A

TDM

177
Q

Purpose of TDM

A

Ensure that a given drug dosage is within a range that produces maximal therapeutic benefit

178
Q

100% bioavailability

A

IV route

179
Q

Most preferred bc it directly goes to circulation without metabolism

A

IV route

180
Q

0.7 bioavailability

A

Oral route

181
Q

Requires dissolution in drug absorption

A

Tablets and capsules

182
Q

Weak acids

A

Efficiently absorbed in the stomach

183
Q

Weak bases

A

Absorbed in the intestine

184
Q

All substances absorbed from the intestine enter the hepatic portal system

A

First-pass metabolism

185
Q

Class I cardioactive drugs
Rapid sodium channel blocker

A

Quinidine, Procainamide, Lidocaine

186
Q

Class II cardioactive drugs
Beta receptor blockers

A

Acebutolol, atenolol, metoprolol, nadolol, pindolol, propranolol

Sectral, tenormin, Lopressor, Corgard, Visken, Inderal

187
Q

Class III cardioactive drugs
Potassium channel blocker

A

Amiodarone

188
Q

Class IV cardioactive drugs
Calcium channel blocker

A

Verapamil

189
Q

A cardiac glycoside extracted from foxgloves leaves

A

Digoxin

190
Q

Most important inotrope

A

Digoxin

191
Q

Used to treat Congestive heart failure

A

Digoxin

192
Q

Inhibit sodium potassium pump

A

Digoxin

193
Q

Peak serum level of digoxin

A

8 hours after an oral dose

194
Q

Half life of digoxin

A

38 hours

195
Q

Toxic level of digoxin

A

> 2 ng/ml

196
Q

Digoxin
Onset
HL
TSL

A

Onset: Rapid
HL: Short
TSL: 0.5-2 ng/mL

197
Q

Digitoxin
Onset
HL
TSL

A

Onset: Slower
HL: Longer
TSL: 9-25 ng/mL

198
Q

Used to correct ventricular arrhythmia and to prevent ventricular fibrilation

A

Lidocaine

199
Q

Primary product of hepatic metabolism of lidocaine

A

MEGX (Monoethylglycinexylidide)

200
Q

Used to treat wolff-parkinson white syndrome

A

Procainamide

201
Q

Hepatic metabolite for Procainamide

A

N-acetyl-procainamide (NAPA)

202
Q

Substitute for quinidine

A

Disopyramide

203
Q

A beta receptor blocking drug used in the treatment of angina pectoris

A

Propranolol

204
Q

Blocks potassium channels in the cardiac muscle

A

Amiodarone

205
Q

Blocks L-type Ca channels especially on the AVN, where conduction is entirely dependent on CA2+ spikes

A

Verapamil

206
Q

Highly potent drug used only for serious ventricular arrhythmias that fail to respond to other medications

Not used for patient with a history of heart attack or Congestive heart failure

A

Flecainide

207
Q

Promotes constriction of the arterioles

A

Alpha blockers

208
Q

Blocking constriction promotes dilation of vessels and lowers blood pressure as well as reducing the work of the heart in some situations

A

Alpha blockers

209
Q

Doxazosin, Prazosin, Terazosin or Cardura, Minipress, Hyrin

A

Alpha blockers

210
Q

Prevent production of angiotensin II

A

ACE inhibitors

211
Q

Captopril (capoten), Enalapril (vasotec), Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)

A

ACE inhibitor

212
Q

Distributes to all tissues and it concentrates in the CSF

A

Chloramphenicol

213
Q

Involves conditions such as epilepsy, convulsions, and seizures which are prevalent neurologic disorders

A

Anti-epileptic drug

214
Q

Long acting barbiturate that controls several types of seizures

A

Phenobarbital

215
Q

Controls tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin

216
Q

TREATMENT of petit mal

A

Valproic acid

217
Q

CONTROLLING petit mal

A

Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

218
Q

Use in sever epilepsies

A

Felbamate

219
Q

Treatment of manic depressive illness

A

Lithium

220
Q

Drugs for cluster headache

A

Lithium

221
Q

Blocks the reuptake of serotonin in central serotonergic pathways

A

Fluoxentine (Prozac)

222
Q

Treatment for refractory schizophrenia

A

Clozapine

223
Q

Thienobenzodiazepine derivative

A

Olanzapine

224
Q

Inhibits cellular immune response by locking production of Interleukin-2 which is responsible for regulating immunity and WBC activity

A

Cyclosporine

225
Q

Used to prevent rejection of allogeneic organ transplants and for suppression of graft vs host disease

A

Cyclosporine

226
Q

100x more stronger than cyclosporine

A

Tacrolimus

227
Q

Antifungal agent with immunosuppressive activity

A

Rapamycin

228
Q

Rapidly converted in the liver to mycophenolic acid
Supplemental therapy with cyclosporine and tacrolimus

A

Mycophenolate mofetil

229
Q

Inhibits lymphocyte proliferation

A

Leflunamide

230
Q

Drugs to prevent/inhibit the development of neoplasm or tumor

A

Anti-neoplastic

231
Q

Inhibits DNA synthesis in all cells by blocking dihydrofolate reductase

A

Methotrexate

232
Q

Used to reverse the action of methotrexate

A

Leucovorin

233
Q

An alkylating agent used to treat leukemias and lymphomas prior to bone marrow transplantation

A

Busulfan

234
Q

A common analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory drug

A

Aspirin/Salicylates

235
Q

Risperdal, Olonzapine, Quetiapine, Arpiprazole

A

Neuroleptics

236
Q

Specimen of choice in TDM is

A

Serum or plasma

237
Q

Drawn right before the next dose

A

Trough concentration

238
Q

Draw one hour after an orally administered dose except digoxin

A

Peak concentration

239
Q

Gold standard for TDM

A

GCMS

MTAP 1 (21 decks)

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