Chemical Safety Flashcards

1
Q

a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in that particular workplace

A

chemical hygiene plan (chp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

appointed to perform safety-related activities such as review of hazardous properties of chemicals and MSDSs

A

chemical hygiene officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

removes the hazard; most effective way of reducing risks

A

eliminating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

replacing one chemical/process with another with lower physical and health hazards

A

substitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

any device or safety equipment that is placed to prevent contact with or exposure to hazards

A

engineering controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

set to reduce employee exposure from hazards

A

administrative controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the last line of defense from hazards

A

personal protective equipment (PPE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

generally used when working with solutions that are not likely to damage eyes

A

general safety glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

used when dealing with chemicals and infectious substances or even flying debris that may reach the eyes

A

chemical splash goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

glasses: reduce lights of specific wavelength that enter the eyes

A

laser safety glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

offer protection from flying debris only

A

impact goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

used together with splash goggles when working with chemicals that can cause immediate damage to the skin or eyes

A

face shields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gloves: working with biological hazards (human blood, body fluids, etc.)

A

disposable latex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

gloves: working with biological hazards and chemical splash hazards

A

disposable nitrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

gloves: working with biological hazards

A

disposable vinyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

gloves: working with small volumes of corrosive liquids, organic solvents, flammable compounds

A

natural rubber latex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

gloves: using apparatus under pressure, air, or water reactive chemicals

A

nitrile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

working with large volumes of organic solvents; small to large volumes of dangerous solvents, acutely toxic, or hazardous materials

A

butyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

same as butyl gloves, plus hazardous material spill

A

viton II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

gloves: same as butyl and viton II, added mechanical protection, hazardous material spills

A

silver shield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

working with hot liquids and equipment, open flames, water bath, oil bath

A

terrycloth autoclave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

handling cryogenic liquids

A

cryogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

working with live animals and exposure to potential cuts

A

wire mesh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

labgown: general use; chemical, biological, radiation, and physical hazards

A

traditional (cotton/cotton-polyester blend) lab gowns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

labgown: working with water or air reactive chemicals, large volumes of organic solvents, and potentially explosive chemicals

A

flame resistant lab gowns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

labgown: working with infectious materials

A

barrier (predominantly polyester) labgown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

protect against large droplets and splashes

A

surgical masks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

mask: protects against dusts, fumes, mists, microorganisms

A

N-95 respirators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

purifies air; protects against variety of particulates, vapors, dust, mists, fumes, depends on filter cartridge used

A

half-mask respirators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

same as half mask, greater protection; eye, mucus membranes and face protection; depends on filter cartridge used

A

full-face respirators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

for use in half-mask respirators and full-face respirators

A

respirator cartridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

respirator cartridge for fumes of organic solvents only

A

organic vapor (OV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

respirator cartridge or vapors of HCl, sulfuric acid, etc.

A

acid gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most important equipment in the laboratory that protect laboratory staff from inhaling toxic vapors/materials

A

laboratory chemical hoods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

value that determines the suitability of the chemical fume hood for its use

A

face velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

value of face velocity

A

80 - 100 ft/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

__ reduces the face velocity of the hood and consequently its performance

A

air currents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

air current caused by the laboratory personnel walking in front of an open chemical hood

A

proximity to traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

air current from air diffuser produces the same effect as that of a walking person

A

proximity to supply air diffuser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

wind blowing through the windows and high-velocity vortices caused when doors open significantly affect the chemical hood face velocity

A

proximity to windows and doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

use for first-aid treatment for skin or eye chemical splashes and must be available in all areas of the laboratory where chemical testing is performed

A

laboratory showers and eyewashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

used for immediate treatment for chemical splashes on body

A

safety showers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

used for immediate treatment of chemical splashes on eyes

A

eyewash fountains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

eyewash fountains and safety showers should also be placed at least __ apart to make simultaneous use of two victims possible

A

5 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

the affected body part must be rinsed for at least __

A

15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

where all reagents are stored, arranged and labelled properly

A

chemical storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

store in a corrosive storage cabinet or in secondary containment

A

corrosives: inorganic/mineral acids, organic acids, bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

store in secure location away from all other chemicals

A

explosives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

store in flammable storage cabinet within secondary containment

A

flammable chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

store in secondary containment, separate from flammable and combustible materials

A

oxidizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

store in dry, cool location, protect from water fire sprinkler

A

water-reactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

store in cool, dry area, away from oxidizing gases. securely strap or chain cylinders to a wall or bench top

A

compressed gas: flammable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

store in cool, dry area, away from flammable gases and liquids. securely strap or chain cylinders to a wall or bench top

A

compressed gas: oxidizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

store in their own secondary containment within a corrosive storage cabinet due to oxidizing characteristics

A

special consideration chemicals

55
Q

store in their own secondary containment within a chemical storage cabinet due to its flammable hazard in addition to being corrosive

A

amines

56
Q

secondary containment for spills, leaks, drips, or weeping

A

corrosion-resistant storage

57
Q

suitable for corrosion-resistant storage

A

polypropylene

58
Q

clear, colorless liquid that is extremely dangerous in all form

A

hydrofluoric acid

59
Q

standardized symbols for labelling hazardous chemical substances

A

globally harmonized system

60
Q

technical documents that contain all information about certain material related to its health effects upon exposure, hazard, and storage handling, precautionary measures, and emergency procedures

A

safety data sheets

61
Q

how many sections of sds

A

16 sections

62
Q

give specifications for a standard system for the assigning and identification of the health, flammability, reactivity hazards of materials under emergency conditions, such as spills, leaks and fires

A

NFPA hazard signal

63
Q

blue color in NFPA hazard signal

A

health hazard

64
Q

red color in NFPA hazard signal

A

fire hazard

65
Q

white color in NFPA hazard signal

A

specific hazard (acid, alkali, corrosive, oxidizer, radioactive, use no water)

66
Q

yellow color in NFPA hazard signal

A

reactivity hazard

67
Q

range wherein the mixture is too lean to burn

A

lower explosion limit

68
Q

range wherein the mixture is too rich to burn

A

upper explosion limit

69
Q

can be ignited at concentrations less than their lower flammable limits and at temperatures below their flashpoint

A

flammable liquids

70
Q

the lowest temp at 1 atm at which liquid releases flammable vapor into the atmosphere enough to ignite when mixed with air at or near the surface of the liquid upon application of a source of ignition such as flame or spark

A

flash point

71
Q

manual fire-extinguishing equipment

A

fire extinguishers

72
Q

class of fire extinguisher for fires involving ordinary combustible solid materials such as wood, paper, rubber, plastic, cloth

A

class a (water type, multipurpose dry chemical type, wet chemical type)

73
Q

class of fire extinguisher for fires in flammable and combustible liquid and gas (surface fire)

A

class b (aqueous film-foaming foam, film-foaming fluoroprotein foam, carbon dioxide, dry chemical type)

74
Q

class of fire extinguisher for fires involving energized electrical equipment (electrical fire)

A

class c (dry chemimcal type, hcfc type)

75
Q

class of fire extinguisher for fires involving combustible metals such as aluminum, magnesium, sodium, titanium

A

class d (dry powder)

76
Q

class of fire extinguisher for kitchen fire

A

class k (kitchen extinguisher)

77
Q

fire extinguisher: color designation for dry chemical (class abs) type

A

red body, white band

78
Q

color designation for carbon monoxide type

A

red body, black band

79
Q

color designation for foam type

A

red body, blue band

80
Q

color designation for halon substitute

A

light green body, white band

81
Q

arise from the highly reactive nature of chemicals in which in the presence of a stimulus, may cause sudden increase in temperature or explosion

A

reactive hazards

82
Q

materials that react violently with water

A

water reactive substances

83
Q

include gases which are contained in a receptacle at a pressure of 200 kPa (gauge) or restricted system or more at 20 deg C, or which are liquefied or liquified and refrigerated

A

gases under pressure

83
Q

materials that ignite due to rapid oxidation by oxygen or moisture in the air

A

pyrophoric substances

84
Q

arise from explosions due to rapid expansion or evolution of gases, usually in a closed or restricted system

A

explosion hazards

85
Q

reactions that result in a sudden, rapid rise in temperature of the material that is being heated which may become violent

A

runaway reactions

86
Q

fire triangle consists of:

A

ignition source, oxygen, fuel

87
Q

hazardous substances that enter the body through absorption, injection, ingestion, or inhalation

A

toxic substances

88
Q

chemical agents that cause undesirable response of tissues upon exposure

A

irritants

89
Q

causes depletion of oxygen in the tissues

A

asphyxiants

90
Q

mainly affect the nervous system by inducing depressant effects

A

narcotics or anesthetics

91
Q

agents that cause toxic action mainly on the internal organs

A

systematic poisons

92
Q

chemical agents that may cause cancer to exposed individuals

A

carcinogens

93
Q

chemical agents that affect the cells of the person upon exposure that may lead to cancer or undesirable mutations to take place in a later generation

A

mutagens

94
Q

agents that cause birth defects upon exposure to a pregnant woman

A

teratogens

95
Q

agents that cause allergic or allergic-like reactions

A

sensitizers

96
Q

solid particles of a substance or mixture suspended in a gas (usually air) that is commonly formed by mechanical processes

A

dust

97
Q

liquid droplets of a substance or mixture suspended in a gas (usually air) that is formed by condensation of supersaturated vapors or by physical shearing of liquids

A

mists

98
Q

gaseous form of a substance or mixture released from its liquid or solid state

A

vapor

99
Q

the extent to which a substance is taken up by an organism and distributed to an area within the organism

A

bioavailability

100
Q

net result of uptake, transformation, and elimination of a substance in an organism due to all routes of exposure

A

bioaccumulation

101
Q

net result of uptake, transformation, and elimination of a substance in an organism due to waterborne exposure

A

bioconcentration

102
Q

involve accidental release of hazardous solid materials

A

solid chemical spills

103
Q

refer to accidental spills of liquid materials that are potentially hazardous

A

liquid chemical spills

104
Q

most commonly used absorbents for chemical spills

A

spill pillows

105
Q

treated with soda ash to neutralize the acid spills

A

acid solution spills

106
Q

smaller acid spills can be neutralized using __

A

baking soda

107
Q

treated with citric acid or dilute HCl to neutralize the base spills

A

alkali solution spills

108
Q

small caustic spills can be treated directly with __

A

solid boric acid or dilute acetic acid solutions

109
Q

commonly used sorbent materials for volatile and flammable solvent spills

A

amorphous silicate, polypropylene, or surfactant-treated propylene

110
Q

spilled mercury should be immediately and thoroughly cleaned up using an __

A

aspirator bulb or a vacuum device

111
Q

mercury spilled into floor cracks can be made nonvolatile by __

A

amalgamation with zinc dust

112
Q

the waste management guidelines are described in __

A

DAO 2013-22

113
Q

materials, by-products, residues, or any other substances from manufacturing operations that are of no importance and present unreasonable risk or hazard to the health and safety of the people and the environment

A

hazardous waste

114
Q

refers to substances that can create fire under certain conditions

A

ignitability

115
Q

refers to material with pH values less than 2 and pH values greater than 12.5

A

corrosivity

116
Q

refers to substances that are unstable under normal conditions and readily undergo violent reaction without detonation

A

reactivity

117
Q

refers to substances that can cause acute or chronic health risks

A

toxicity

118
Q

laboratory chemical wastes can be classified into:

A

solid wastes and lquid wastes

119
Q

waste number for waste cyanide

A

A101

120
Q

waste number for acid wastes

A

B201 to B299

121
Q

waste number for alkali wastes

A

C301 to C399

122
Q

waste number for wastes with inorganic chemicals

A

D401 to D499

123
Q

waste number for reactive chemical wastes

A

E501 to E599

124
Q

waste number for inks/dyes/pigments/paint/resins/latex/adhesives/organic sludge

A

F601 to F699

125
Q

waste number for organic wastes

A

H802

126
Q

waste number for oil

A

I101 to I104

127
Q

waste number for containers

A

J201

128
Q

waste number for stabilized wastes

A

K301 to K303

129
Q

container type for acids and bases content

A

polyethylene drums

130
Q

container type for flammable, solvents, paints

A

metal drums

131
Q

container type for granular materials

A

fiber drums

132
Q

the maximum hazardous waste accumulation time is __

A

one (1) year, except for wastes that have no existing infrastructure for proper treatment and disposal

133
Q

place chemical sources and apparatus at least __ behind the face

A

6 in