Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1390-59 Intro to Pharmacology > Chapters 1-3 & 5-7 > Flashcards

Chapters 1-3 & 5-7 Flashcards

1
Q

Adverse Effect

A

General term for undesirable and potentially harmful drug effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chemical Name

A

Name that defines the chemical composition of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Agonist

A

Drug that binds to a receptor and activates a physiologic response or drug action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contraindications

A

Situations or conditions when a certain drug should not be administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antagonist

A

drug that binds to a receptor and interferes with other drugs or substances from producing a drug effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dose

A

A measurement of the amount of drug that is administered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug

A

Chemical substance that produces a change in the body function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drug Indications

A

intended or indicated uses for any drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ED50

A

Effective dose 50, or dose that will produce an effect that is half of the maximal response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Generic Name

A

Nonproprietary name of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

controlled substance

A

drug that has the potential for abuse and thus is regulated by law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

LD50

A

Lethal dose 50, or a dose that will kill 50 percent of the laboratory animals tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mechanism of Action

A

Explanation of how a drug produces its effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nonprescription, over the counter (OTC) drug

A

Drug that can be purchased without the services of a physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pharmacology

A

Study of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Receptor

A

Specific cellular structure that a drug binds to in order to produce a physiologic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Side Effect

A

Drug effect other than the therapeutic effect that is usually undesirable but not harmful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Site of action

A

Location within the body where a drug exerts it therapeutic effect, often a specific drug receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Therapeutic effect

A

Desired drug effect to alleviate some condition or symptom of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Therapeutic index (TI)

A

Ration of the LD50 to the ED50 in animal studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Toxic effect

A

Undesirable drug effect that implies drug poisoning can be very harmful of life-threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Trade Name

A

Patented proprietary name of a drug sold by a specific drug manufacturer; also referred to as the brand name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the Major areas of Pharmacology? (6)

A 
Pharmacodynamics
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacotherapeutics
Pharmacy
Posology
Toxicology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Study of the action of drugs on living tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Study of the processes of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pharmacotherapeutics

A

Study of the use of drugs in treating disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pharmacy

A

Science of preparing and dispensing medicines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Posology

A

Study of the amount of drug that is required to produce therapeutic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Toxicology

A

Study of the harmful effects of drugs on living tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Duration of action

A

Length of time that a drug continues to produce its effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Time-Plasma Drug Concentration or Time response Curve

A

The relationship of time and the plasma drug concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The US Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF)

A

Official drug list recognized by the US government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)

A

Reference most widely used by physicians, pharmacist, and nurses for info relating to the use of drugs in the practice of medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Schedule I (Drugs)

A

Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical use

Ex- heroin, hallucinogens, marijuana (not to be prescribed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Schedule II (Drugs)

A

Drugs with high abuse potential and accepted medical use

Ex- narcotics (morphine and pure codeine) cocaine, amphetamines, short-acting barbiturates (amobarbital, secobarbital), nabilone. No refills without a new written prescription from the physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Schedule III (Drugs)

A

Drugs with moderate abuse potential and accepted medical use

Ex- moderate- and intermediate-acting barbiturates Dronabinol, anabolic steroids, preparations containing codeine plus another drug: prescription required, may be refilled five times in 6 months when authorized by the physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Schedule IV (Drugs)

A

Drugs with low abuse potential and accepted medical use

Ex- phenobarbital, chloral hydrate, zolpidem (Ambien), anti anxiety drugs (Librium, Valium) prescription required, may be refilled five times in 6 months when authorized by the physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Schedule V (Drugs)

A

Drugs with limited abuse potential and accepted medical use

Ex- Narcotic drugs used in limited quantities for antitussive (codeine) and antidiarrheal purposes (diphenoxylate, Lomotil) drugs can be sold only by a registered pharmacist buyer must be 18 years old and show identification. Some states require a prescription for schedule V drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bio-availability

A

Percentage of the drug dosage that is absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Drug absorption

A

Entrance of a drug into the bloodstream from its site of administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Drug addiction

A

Condition of drug abuse and drug dependence that is characterized by compulsive drug behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Drug dependence

A

Condition of reliance on the use of particular drug, characterized by physical and or psychological dependence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Drug distribution

A

Passage of a drug from the blood to the tissues and organs of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Drug metabolism

A

The enzymatic bio transformation of the drug into metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Drug excretion

A

Elimination of the drug from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Drug microsomal metabolizing system (DMMS)

A

Group of enzymes located primarily in the liver that function to metabolize (bio transformation) drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Drug tolerance

A

Decreased drug effect occurring after repeated drug administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Enzyme induction

A

Increase in the amount of drug metabolizing enzymes after repeated administration of certain drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Enzyme inhibition

A

Inhibition of drug-metabolizing enzymes by certain drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

First- pass metabolism

A

Drug metabolism that occurs in the intestines and liver during oral absorption of drugs into the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Half-life

A

Time required for the body to reduce the amount of drug in the plasma by one-half.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Individual variation

A

Difference in the effects of drugs and drug dosages from one person to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Intramuscular injection (IM)

A

Route of drug administration – drug is injected into gluteal or deltoid muscles.

Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Intravenous injection (IV)

A

Route of drug administration drug is injected into a vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Loading dose

A

Initial drug dose administered to rapidly achieve therapeutic drug concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Maintenance dose

A

Dose administered to maintain drug levels in blood in the therapeutic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Oral administration

A

Route of drug administration that does not involve the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Alcoholic Preparations (Drug Form)

A

Elixirs, spirits,tincutres, and fluid extracts are drugs dissolved in various concentrations of alcohol, usually in the range of 5-20 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Aqueous Preparations (Drug Form)

A

Syrups (a solution of water and sugar to which a drug is added)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Powders (Drug Form)

A

Powders are drugs or drug extracts that are dried and ground into fine particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Tablets

A

Drug powders that have been compressed into a convenient form for swallowing. Usually disintegrate in the stomach more rapidly than most other solid preparations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Troches and Lozenges (Drug Form)

A

Flattened tablets are allowed to dissolve in the mouth; commonly used for colds and sore throats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Capsules (Drug Form)

A

Gelatin capsules are used to administer drug powders or liquids; dissolve in the stomach thereby releasing the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Delayed- Release Products (Drug Form)

A

Usually tablets or capsules that are treated with special coatings to that various portions of the drug will dissolve at different rates. Usually contain the equivalent of two or three single dose units. Designed to produce drug effects over extended time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Enteric- Coated Products (Drug Form)

A

Drug tablet or capsule coated with an acid-resistant substance that will dissolve only in less acidic portions of the intestines. Should be take on an empty stomach with water, either 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Suppositories (Drug Form)

A

Drugs mixed with a substance (cacao butter) that will melt at body temperature. Are intended for insertion into the rectum, urethra, or vagina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Ointments (Drug Form)

A

Or salves are soft, oily substances (petrolatum or lanolin) containing a drug that applied to the skin or in the case of ophthalmic ointments to the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Transdermal Products (Drug Form)

A

Administered through a bandage or patch system. Released from the bandage or patch and is then absorbed through the skin into the systemic circulation. Provides continuous source of drug of 24 hours or more Nitroglycerin estrogen and clonidine are drugs available in this form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Parental Injection (Drug Forms)

A

Involves the administration fo drugs by needle and syringe Different injection sites such ad subcutaneous (SC) intramuscular (IM) intravenous (IV) and others provide different rates of drug absorption and onset of action. Requires the practice of sterile technique and various safety precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Oral Administration (PO) (Routes of Administration)

A

Safest and most convenient method

30-60 min before significant absorption from the GI tract occurs, therefore the onset of the drug action is delayed

Can be removed (if need be) within the first few hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Parenteral Administration Include?

Routes of Administration

A

Any route that does not involve the GI tract, including inhalation, hypodermic injection and topical application.

Intramuscular injection (IM)
Intravenous injection (IV)
Inhalation
Topical Application

Ex- most medications – aspirin, sedatives, hypnotics, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Sublingual (Routes of Administration)

A

Takes several Minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Buccal (Routes of Administration)

A

Several minutes

Convenient dosage from for certain drugs

Ex- nitroglycerin in angina pectoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Rectal (Routes of Administration)

A

15 to 30 min

When a patient cannot take oral medications and parenteral is no indicated, also for local effects

Ex- analgesics, laxatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Transdermal (Routes of Administration)

A

30-60 min

Convenient dosage form that provides continuous absorption and systemic effects over many hours

Ex- nitroglycerin, estrogen

76
Q

Subcutaneous (SQ)(Routes of Administration)

A

Into Fat

Several min

For drugs that are inactivated by the GI tract

Ex-insulin

77
Q

Intramuscular (IM)(Routes of Administration)

A

Into Muscle

Several min

For drugs that have poor oral absorption, when high blood levels are required and when rapid effects are desired

Ex- narcotic analgesic, antibiotics

78
Q

Intravenous (IV)(Routes of Administration)

A

Into Vein

Within 1 minute

In emergency situations where immediate effects are required, also when medications are administered by infusion

Ex- IV fluides (dextrose) nutriment supplementation, antibiotics

79
Q

Intraarterial(Routes of Administration)

A

Within 1 min

For local effects within an internal organ

Ex- cancer drugs

80
Q

Intrathecal(Routes of Administration)

A

Several minutes

For local effects within the spinal cord

Ex- spinal anesthesia with lidocaine

81
Q

Inhalation(Routes of Administration)

A

Within 1 min

For local effects within the respiratory tract

Ex- anti asthmatic medications such as epinephrine

82
Q

Topical(Routes of Administration)

A

Within 1 hour

For local effects on the skin, eye, or ear

Ex- creams and ointments

83
Q

Vaginal(Routes of Administration)

A

15-30 min

For local effects

Creams, foams, and suppositories

84
Q

Lipid Solubility(Drug Absorption)

A

In general, the more lipid soluble a drug is, the faster it will pass through a lipid substance like the cell membrane. With exception of general anesthetics (highly lipid soluble), most drugs are primarily water soluble and only partially lipid soluble

85
Q

Drug Ionization(Drug Absorption)

A

Ionized drugs are charged molecules because their atomic structure had los or gained electrons. The molecules then become either positively or negatively charged. In General, ionized drug molecules do not readily cross cell membranes. The unionized(uncharged) form of the drug is required in order for absorption to occur

86
Q

Drug Formulation (Drug Absorption)

A

Drug particles can be formulated into different sizes, such as crystals, micronized particles or ultra micronized particles. The smaller the size of the drug particle the faster the rate of dissolution and absorption

87
Q

What factors determine how much drug reaches any one organ or area of the body? (3)

A
  • Plasma protein binding
  • Blood flow
  • The presence of specific tissue barriers.
88
Q

Plasma Protein Binding (Drug Distribution)

A

Several different proteins (albumin and globulins) are in the plasma and form a circulating protein pool they help regulate osmotic pressure (oncotic pressure) in the blood and transport many hormones and vitamins. Many drugs are attracted to plasma proteins, especially albumin The result is that some drug molecules are bound to plasma proteins while some drug molecules are unbound (free in circulation) only the unbound or free drug molecules can exert a pharmacological effect.

89
Q

Blood Flow(Drug Distribution)

A

Largest blood supply – liver, kidney and brain so they are exposed to largest amount of drug.

Adipose tissue receive a relatively poor blood supply so they do no accumulate large amount of drug. However, highly lipid soluble drugs can enter adipose tissue easily where they can accumulate and remain for an extend period of time

90
Q

Blood- Brain Barrier(Drug Distribution)

A

An additional lipid barrier that protects the brain by restricting the passage of electrolytes and other water soluble substances.

The brain is composed of large amount of lipid(nerve membranes and myelin)lipid soluble drugs pass readily into the brain. Rule of thumb- a drug must have a certain degree of lipid solubility if it is to penetrate this barrier and gain access to the brain

91
Q

Drug Excretion (4)

A

Renal Excretion
GI Excretion
Respiratory Excretion
Miscellaneous

92
Q

Renal Excretion (Drug Excretion)

A

After the blood is filtered through the glomerulus of the kidneys, most of the filtered substances are eventually reabsorbed into the blood

Exceptions – urinary waste produces and anything else that is nonabsorbent form.

93
Q

GI Excretion (Drug Excretion)

A

After oral administration a certain portion of the drug (un-absorbed) passes through the GI tract and is excreted in the feces.

After the drug is released into the intestines it maybe absorbed from the intestines back into the blood again. Referred to as the enterohepatic cycle.

94
Q

Miscellaneous (Drug Excretion)

A

Some drugs and drug metabolites also can be detected in swear, saliva, and milk (lactation)

95
Q

Respiratory Excretion (Drug Excretion)

A

Some drugs are metabolized to products that can be exchanged from the blood into the respiratory tract. General anesthetic gases are not totally metabolized. These drugs are excreted primarily by the lungs

96
Q

Blood Drug Levels

A

Intensity of drug effect is mainly determined by the concentration of drug in the blood or plasma

97
Q

List Factors of Individual Variation

A
  • Age
  • Weight
  • Sex and percent of body fat
  • Genetic variation
  • Emotional state
  • Placebo effect
  • Presence of disease
  • Patient compliance
98
Q

Weight (Factors of Individual Variation)

A

In small individuals the code may have to be reduced. In larger individuals the dose may be to be increased (doesn’t always hold true)

99
Q

Age(Factors of Individual Variation)

A

Infants children and elderly are generally more sensitive to actions of drugs than are younger adults

100
Q

Sex and percent Body Fat

Factors of Individual Variation

A

Females possess a higher%of body fat and lower % of body water = greater drug effect than males b/c the drug is dissolved into a smaller volume of body fluid. Lipid soluble drugs are more widely distributed and may produce longer duration of action in females than in males. Same concept applies to the difference in the body fat composition between members of the same sex

101
Q

Genetic Variation

Factors of Individual Variation

A

Individuals tend to inherit the proteins and enzyme patterns of their parents.

102
Q

Emotional State

Factors of Individual Variation

A

An individual who is excited or extremely anxious may require a larger dose of hypnotic or tranquilizer than an individual who is not emotionally stimulated but who still has difficulty sleeping.

103
Q

Placebo Effect

Factors of Individual Variation

A

Patients claim an improved condition even though they receive no real drug

104
Q

Presence of Disease

Factors of Individual Variation

A

Presence of other diseases that are debilitation or decrease the function of some vial organ usually makes an individual more susceptible to the effects and adverse reactions of drug therapy

105
Q

Patient Compliance

Factors of Individual Variation

A

Drug compliance refers to taking a drug exactly as prescribed. If dosages are forgotten or skipped, the drug effects will be reduced or absent. Aka non compliance.

106
Q

Teratogenic

A

Cause birth defects.

107
Q

Incompatibility (Drug Interactions)

A

Refers to physical alterations of drugs that occur before administration when different drugs are mixed in the same syringe or other container

108
Q

Addictive Effects (Drug Interactions)

A

When the combined effect of 2 drugs each producing the same biological response by the same mechanism of action, is equal to the sum of their individual effects.

109
Q

Summation (Drug Interactions)

A

When the combined effect of 2 drugs each producing the same biological response but by a different mechanism of action, is equal to the sum of their individual effects

110
Q

Synergism (Drug Interactions)

A

When the combined effect of 2 drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects

111
Q

Antagonism (Drug Interactions)

A

When the combined effect of 2 drugs is less than the sum of their individual effects

112
Q

Creatine

A

A metabolite of muscle metabolism that Is excreted in the urine in proportion to renal function

113
Q

Creatinine clearance

A

A measure of renal creatinine excretion that is used to evaluate renal function

114
Q

Drug compliance

A

Following a drug prescription directions exactly as written

115
Q

Enterohepatic recycling

A

Process whereby drug is eliminated from the live/biliary tract into the GI tract and then reabsorbed from the GI tract back to the liver

116
Q

Geriatrics

A

Medical specialty that deals with individuals over 65 years of age

117
Q

Mixed- function oxidase system

A

Drub microsomal metabolizing enzymes (DMMS) that decrease with age and who the rate of drug oxidation metabolism

118
Q

Polypharmacy

A

Situation in patients whose treatment involves multiple drug prescriptions

119
Q

Drug absorption (Elderly)

A

Decreased intestinal blood flow, surface area and motility delay drug absorption and slow onset of drug action

120
Q

Drug metabolism (elderly)

A

Decreased liver blood flow , liver organize, and enzyme concentrations decrease the rate of drug metabolism and increase the duration of intensity of drug action

121
Q

Drug Distribution (Elderly)

A

Decreased body water, lean body mass, and plasma proteins along with increased fat content increase plasma drug concentrations and pharmacologic effects

122
Q

Drug Excretion (elderly)

A

Age related decreased in renal function and blood flow slow the rate of drug excretion and increase the duration of intensity of drug action

123
Q

Acetylcholine (ACH)

A

Neurotransmitter of parasympathetic (cholinergic) nerves; stimulates the cholinergic receptor

124
Q

Adrenergic

A

Refers to the nerves that release norepinephrine

125
Q

Adrenergic receptor

A

Receptor located on the internal organs that responds to norepinephrine and epinephrine

126
Q

Afferent nerve

A

Transmits sensory info from the peripheral organs to the brain and spinal cord (central nervous system)

127
Q

Autonomic ganglion

A

The collection of synapses between the pre and post ganglionic nerve fibers

128
Q

Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

A

System of nerves that innervate smooth and cardiac muscle (involuntary) of the internal organs and glands

129
Q

Cholinergic

A

Refers to nerves that release acetylcholine

130
Q

Efferent nerve

A

Carries the appropriate motor response from the brain and spinal cord to the peripheral organs

131
Q

Cholinergic (muscarinic)receptor

A

Receptor located on internal organs and glands that responds to acetylcholine

132
Q

Epinephrine (EPI)

A

Hormone from adrenal medulla that stimulates adrenergic receptors, especially during times of stress

133
Q

Fight or flight reaction

A

Response of the body to intense stress caused by activation of sympathetic division of ANS

134
Q

Homeostasis

A

Normal state of balance amount the body’s internal organs

135
Q

Muscarinic receptor

A

Cholinergic receptor located on the cell walls of internal organs and glands

136
Q

Nicotinic receptor

A

Cholinergic receptor located on autonomic ganglia (Nn) and skeletal muscle (Nm)

137
Q

Neurotransmitter

A

Substance that stimulates internal organs to produce characteristic changes associated with sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

138
Q

Norepinephrine (NE)

A

Neurotransmitter of sympathetic (adrenergic) nerves that stimulates the adrenergic receptors

139
Q

Parasympathetic

A

Refers to nerves of ANS that originate in the brain and sacral portion of the spinal cord’ they are active when the body is at rest or trying to restore body energy and function

140
Q

Postganglionic nerve fiber

A

Autonomic nerve fiber that travels from the autonomic ganglia to the internal organs and glands

141
Q

Preganglionic nerve fiber

A

Autonomic nerve fiber that emerges from the cranial nerves and spinal cord and that travel to the autonomic ganglia where it synapse with the postganglionic nerve fibers

142
Q

CNS =

A

Central Nervous System

143
Q

Sympathetic

A

Refers to nerves of the ANS that originate from the thoracolumbar portion of the spinal cord; they are active when the body is under stress or when it is exerting energy

144
Q

PNS=

A

Peripheral nervous system

Somatic division and Visceral Division (Autonomic Nervous System)

145
Q

Somatic division

A

branches of the cranial and spinal motor nerves that innervate skeletal muscle (voluntary) Conscious or voluntary control of the cerebral cortex

146
Q

Visceral Division (Autonomic Nervous System/ ANS)

A

Branches of the cranial and spinal motor nerves that innervate cardiac and smooth muscle (involuntary) of the internal organs and glands. NOT under Conscious control, are regulated by the hypothalamus and medulla oblongata

147
Q

Adrenergic Neuronal Blocker

A

Drug that acts at the neuronal nerve endings to reduce the formation or release of NE

148
Q

Alpha-adrenergic drug

A

Drug that stimulates the alpha adrenergic receptors

149
Q

Alpha-1 adrenergic blocker

A

Drug that blocks the alpha-1 effects of NE and EPI

150
Q

Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor

A

Receptor located on the smooth muscle that mediates smooth muscle contraction

151
Q

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor

A

Receptor located on the adrenergic nerve endings that reduce the release of NE

152
Q

Beta-1 adrenergic receptor

A

Receptor located on the heart that increases the heart rate and force of contraction

153
Q

Beta-2 adrenergic receptor

A

Receptor located on smooth muscle that relaxes smooth muscle when stimulated

154
Q

Catecholamine

A

Refers to norepinephrine, epinephrine and other sympathomimetic compounds that possess the catechol structure

155
Q

False transmitter

A

Substance formed in nerve endings that mimics the interferes with the action of the normal neurotransmitter

156
Q

Non selective beta adrenergic blocker

(refer to page 72 Table 6.2)

A

Drug that blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 adrenergic receptors

157
Q

Nonselective beta adrenergic drug

refer to page 72 Table 6.2

A

Drug that stimulates both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors

158
Q

selective beta-1 adrenergic blocker

refer to page 72 Table 6.2

A

Drug that blocks only beta 1 receptors

159
Q

selective beta-2 adrenergic drug

refer to page 72 Table 6.2

A

Drug that stimulates only beta 2 receptors at the therapeutic doses

160
Q

sympatholytic

A

Refers to the action of an adrenergic blocking drug or an action that decreases sympathetic activity

161
Q

sympathomimetic

A

Refers to the action of an adrenergic drug or an action that increases sympathetic activity

162
Q

Acetylcholinesterase

A

An enzyme that inactivates acetylcholine

163
Q

Anticholinergic

A

Refers to drugs or effects that reduce the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system

164
Q

Cholinergic

A

Refers to the nerves and receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system also refers to the drugs that stimulate the system

165
Q

Muscarinic receptors

A

An older but more specific term for the cholinergic receptor on smooth and cardiac muscle

166
Q

Nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptor

A

Cholinergic receptor located on both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia

167
Q

Parasympatholytic

A

Refers to drugs (anticholinergic)that decreases the activity of the para sympathetic nervous system

168
Q

parasympathomimetic

A

Refers to drugs (cholinergic) that mimic stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system

169
Q

Therapeutic Index

A

Ratio/lethal dose (LD) to effective dose (ED)

larger the TI the safer the drug

170
Q

True/False The Mechanism of action explains how a drug produces its effects

A

True- the mechanism of action refers to the specific biochemical actions that occur that allows the drug to produce the desired effect

171
Q

Competitive Antagonism

A

when an antagonist and agonist bind to the same receptor and are administered together they compete with each other for the same receptor site. The action produced depends on which occupies the most receptors

172
Q

Intradermal

A

Into skin layer

173
Q

Intracritular

A

Into Joint (shoulder)

174
Q

Absorption

A

passage of substance through the membrane into the blood stream

175
Q

As a rule of thumb- drugs that are lipid soluable do what?

A

pass readily to the brain

176
Q

Prego A

A

safe to take

177
Q

Prego B

A

animal studies show no risk but haven’t been tested on women

178
Q

Prego C

A

greater risk than A and B

179
Q

Prego D

A

adverse effects to fetus

ONLY GIVEN if the mother absolutely needs it.

180
Q

Prego x

A

fetal risk clearly out weighs the benefit

181
Q

Prego NR

A

not been rated by FDA

182
Q

Somatic Nervous System (SNS)

A

voluntary control of skeletal muscle

183
Q

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

A

Involuntary Control

184
Q

Sympathetic

A

“fight or flight”

185
Q

Parasympathetic

A

“talks to during rest and digest”

1390-59 Intro to Pharmacology (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions