Chapter 18 Flashcards

1
Q

adipose tissue

A

tissue containing fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

akathesia

A

continuous body movement in which an individual is restless of constantly paces about

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

akinesia

A

loss of voluntary muscle movement restless leg movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

analgesia

A
  • lack of pain or feeling

- decreased response to pain; condition in which painful stimuli are not consciously interpreted (perceived as hurting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cation

A

positively charged ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dehiscence

A

bursting open or separation of a would, usually along sutured line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

dissociative anesthesia

A

form of general anesthesia in which patients do not appear to be unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

dyskineasia

A

uncontrollable involuntary repetitive movements; spastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

emetogenic

A

a substance that causes vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

euphoria

A

feeling of well-being or elation; feeling good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

expectorate

A

eject from the mouth; split

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

extrapyramidal syndrome

A

movement disorders such as akathisia, dystonia, and parkinsonism caused by antipsychotic drug therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GABA (gamma-amino butyric acid)

A
  • the principal inhibitory neuro transmitter in the brain stem and spinal cord
  • inhibitory hyperpolarized the membrane. Barbiturates, benzodiazepines, etomidate, Propofol, and volatile anesthetics enhance GABAa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

general anesthesia

A

deep state of unconsciousness in which there is no response to stimuli including painful stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

halogenated hyrocarbon

A

compound that contains halogen (chlorine, fluorine, bromine, iodine) combined with hydrogen and carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hyperpolarized

A

a change in the cell membrane potential that makes the inside of the cell even more negative so it cant respond to stimulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hyperthermia

A

abnormally high body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hypothalamus

A

center of the brain that influences mood, motivation, and perception of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hypotaxia

A

reduction of oxygen supply to tissues below the amount required for normal physiological function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

induction of general anasthesisa

A

time required to take a patient from consciousness to Stage III of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

maintenance of general anesthesia

A

ability to keep a patient safely in stage III anesthesia

-monitoring of vital signs and ECG, EEG, and general observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

medullary depression

A

inhibition of automatic response controlled by the medulla, such as breathing or cardiac function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

medullary paralysis

A

condition in which overdose of anesthetic shuts down cardiovascular and respiratory centers in the medulla, causing death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

microcilia

A

tiny hairs that line the respiratory tract and continuously move, pushing secretions toward the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)

A

standard reference for inhaled anesthetics indicating the lowest concentration of anesthetic in the alveoli (lungs) that keeps 50 percent of the patients from responding to stimuli (moving)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

monitored anesthesia care (MAC)

A
  • intravenous sedation with midazolam, followed by Propofol and/or fentanyl
  • induces conscious sedation- patient can speak and answer questions but has altered state of awareness and minimal response to pain; can be light enough to permit interaction or heavy enough so patient cannot be aroused easily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

neuroleptanalgesia

A

condition in which a patient is quiet and calm and has no response to pain after the combined administration of an opioid analgesic (fentanyl) and a tranquilizer (droperidol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

neuroleptanesthesia

A

state of unconsciousness plus neuroleptanalgesia produced by the combined administration of nitrous oxide, fentanyl and droperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

neurotransmitter-gated ion channel

A

receptor-ion complex in the membrane that opens and allows rapid transmission of signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

NMDA (N-methyl D-aspartate) receptor

A

a glutamate receptor in the brain that causes excitation

  • depolarizes the membrane, ketamine, nitrous oxide, and Propofol antagonize glutamate action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

preferred anesthetic

A

produces adequate anesthesia with minimal side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

synergism

A

when the action resulting from a combination of drugs is greater than the sum of their individual drug effects

33
Q

therapeutic dose

A

dose at which the desired effect is produced

34
Q

what happens in the limbic system with Mild Inhibition?

A

reduces anxiety

35
Q

what happens in the limbic system with More Intense depression?

A

sleep (state of unconsciousness)

- can be awakened

36
Q

what happens in the limbic system with General Anesthesia?

A

a deeper state of unconsciousness

37
Q

Local Anesthesia

A

inhibits pain in a specific area of the body

38
Q

General anesthesia

A
  • causes complete loss of consciousness
  • balanced anesthesia
    • requires less absolute CNS depression because it uses other drugs such as anti anxiety and muscle relaxants that complement the action of anesthetic
39
Q

balanced anesthesia

A
  • requires less absolute CNS depression because it uses other drugs such as anti anxiety and muscle relaxants that complement the action of anesthetic
40
Q

Stage I

of Anesthesia with CNS Depression

A

analgesia/lack of pain or feeling

  • decreased response to pain
  • euphoria/giddiness
41
Q

Stage II

A

excitement (delirium)

  • cerebral cortex if fully depressed
  • achieved by the hypothalamus assuming control of body functions
  • increased sympathetic tone
  • elevated blood pressure and heart rate
  • hyper reaction to stimulation
  • cardiac erythema’s can occur in this stage
42
Q

Stage III (Surgical Anesthesia)

A
  • sleep
  • normal blood pressure and respiration
  • dilated pupils, loss of corneal reflex
  • skeletal muscle relaxation
  • paralysis of the diaphragm, hypotension occur
43
Q

Stage IV

A

medullary paralysis

-represents an overdose of general anesthetic in which respiratory paralysis leas to circulatory collapses and death

44
Q

What is the ideal state of General Anesthesia?

A

rapid induction and slow maintenance

45
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of General Anesthetics?

A

neurotransmitter-gated ION channels

  • general anesthetics inhibit CNS activity by interacting with membrane ION channels
    • general anesthetics bind with the GABAa Receptors
      • hyperpolarized membranes
  • Excitatory NMDA receptor
    • antagonized by nitrous oxide, Propofol, and ketamine
    • blocks cation movement and depolarization
46
Q

Volatile Anestetics

A

liquid anesthetic that at room temperature volatilizes to a vapor, which, when inhaled, is capable of producing general anesthesia. Modulate excitatory and inhibitory synaptic transmissions

  • Minimal alveolar concentration
    • less when intravenous anesthetics enhance inhibitory receptors and antagonize excitatory receptors

ex- ether and halogenated hydrocarbons

47
Q

Channel Proteins

A

a channel protein that is constantly open and allows solutes to pass into and out of the cell

48
Q

Explain the Routes of Administration for General Anesthetics

A

inhalation or intravenous injection

  • provide rapid delivery of the drug in the blood
  • facilitates a smooth induction into anesthesia
49
Q

What are the Solubility Characteristics of Inhalation Anesthetics?

A
  • blood; gas partition coefficient
  • the greater the value of the coefficient, higher the solubility of the drug in the blood
  • volatile liquids - more soluble in the blood so like staying there
  • nitrous oxide, desflurane, sevoflurane are not very soluble in the blood, so cant wait to move out of the blood
50
Q

What does having a greater # of Coefficient mean?

What does having a less # of Coefficient mean?

A

-the more soluble the drug is in the blood.

51
Q

What does having a less # of Coefficient mean?

A

-have a quicker onset of action because the drugs are ready to cross the CNS as soon as the circulation gets them there.

52
Q

How does solubility effect the onset of action?

A

the more soluble the longer onset of action because they require more anesthetic to dissolve in the blood before enough drug molecules are available to cross into the brain

  • once into the CNS the anesthetics modulate neuronal membranes to produce a state on anesthesia
53
Q

Inhalation Anesthetic produce all stages of general anesthesia with the exception of what? Why?

A

nitrous-oxide

-its not potent enough to maintain stage III

(recently been re introduced in the US by manufacturer with updated delivery system for use in obstetrics

54
Q

Inhalation Anesthetic - Delivery and Potency

A
  • delivered to the alveoli and then to the blood for distribution to the tissues
  • potency is measured by the concentration of drug in alveoli
55
Q

What must be included in the Inhalation Anesthetic Mixture? Why?

A

air

  • patients will rapidly develop hypoxia
56
Q

Why are Intravenous Anesthetics given?

A

the are administered by IV because extravascular injections cause pain, swelling, and ulceration

57
Q

Barbiturates

Intravenous Anesthetic

A

example-methohexital (Brevital)(C-IV)

  • ultrashort-acting drug
  • does not produce analgesia at any does
  • may cause laryngospasm or bronchospasm
  • contraindication- evidence of status asthmaticus or porphyria )abnormally metabolized hbg)
58
Q

Benzodiazepines

Intravenous Anesthetic

A

example- midazolam (Versed)(C-IV)

  • short acting CNS depressant- administered through the IV or rectal routes
  • induces amnesia and sedation -used for induction of genera anesthesia- given with neuromuscular blocking drugs
  • Flumazenil- specific receptor antagonist (only anesthetic class to have specific receptor antagonist ) - reverses the sedative effects of benzos when an over dose has occurred
59
Q

Non Barbiturates- Propoful (Dipravan) not on the controlled substance list

(Intravenous Anesthetic)

A
  • most commonly used parenteral anesthetic in the US
  • used to initiate and maintain MAC sedation
  • possesses a narrow margin of safety-can cause death if the medulla is fully depressed
  • not regarded as an analgesic
    • depresses cardiovascular and respiratory activity
  • antiemetic anesthetic
  • dependence is mostly psychological- cravings, loss of control over the amount and frequency of drug required to achieve desired effects

-PHARMACOLOGIC DOSE IS VER CLOSE TO THE LETHAL DOSE

60
Q

Nonbarbiturates- etomidate (Amidate) no on the controlled substance list

(Intravenous Anesthetic)

A
  • not used for continuous of maintenance anesthesia, only induction
  • produces postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)
  • used in high-risk surgical patients
    • exerts less depressant effects on the heart and respiratory centers
61
Q

Nonbarbiturates-Ketamine (Ketalar)

Intravenous Anesthetic

A

-Short-acting dissociative anesthetic - patients don’t appear to be unconscious

  • Produces good analgesia
  • Does not relax skeletal muscles, actually increases muscle tone
  • Inhibits the excitatory pathway by a direct interaction with the NMDA receptor
  • Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
  • Vivid dreams and hallucinations occur during the recovery period
62
Q

Nonbarbiturates- Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)

Intravenous Anesthetic

A
  • Potent alpha2 adrenergic agonist

- Produces analgesia, sedation, and reduced anxiety

63
Q

Nonbarbiturates- Opioids and droperidol

Intravenous Anesthetic

A
  • When administered together, the combination produces neuroleptanalgesia.
    • Ex., fentanyl (C–II)and droperidol together cause a state quietness and calmness with no response to pain
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms have been seen from the use of droperidol.
    • Parkinsonian syndrome may occur occasionally.
64
Q

CNS

Non- Anesthetic Effects of General Anesthetics

A
  • Regulation of cerebral blood flow
  • Change in intracranial pressure
  • Seizure induction
  • Nausea and vomiting
65
Q

Postoperative nausea and vomititng (PONV)

Non- Anesthetic Effects of General Anesthetics

A

Volatile anesthetics are emetogenic.
Anesthetic agents increase the sensitivity of the vestibular center of the inner ear.
Rapid position change or movement may lead to the development of PONV

-Propofol is the only anesthetic to have evidence of reducing PONV

66
Q

Respiratory System

Non- Anesthetic Effects of General Anesthetics

A

-Postoperative ventilatory failure and hypoxia

-Production of secretions
Muscle spasms along the respiratory tract

-inhalation anesthetics inhibit the microcilia that line the respiratory tract

67
Q

Cardiovascular System

Non- Anesthetic Effects of General Anesthetics

A
  • IV anesthetics increase in blood pressure and heart rate
  • Cardiovascular depression may occur following depression of the medullary vasomotor centers.
  • Higher doses may cause cardiovascular collapse.
68
Q

Skeletal Muscle

Non- Anesthetic Effects of General Anesthetics

A
  • Skeletal muscle relaxation occurs in Stage III.
  • Inhalation anesthetics facilitate muscle incision and manipulation.
  • Benzodiazepines interrupt excessive contractions in spasticity disorders and dyskinesias.
69
Q

Hepatic and renal systems

Non- Anesthetic Effects of General Anesthetics

A
  • Volatile anesthetics temporarily reduce renal and hepatic blood flow, glomerular filtration, and urine output -> usually no other significant effects other than temporary inhibition in urine output. Thus these drugs are used in patients with renal or hepatic disease.
  • Hepatitis can be associated with the volatile anesthetics.
  • Intravenous anesthetics are metabolized in the microsomal enzyme system of the liver.
70
Q

Management of non-anesthetic effects of general anesthetics

Adjuncts to General Anesthesia

A

Pre-anesthetic and post-anesthetic medications are given to:

  • Aid induction
  • Counteract side effects of anesthesia
  • Make recovery safe and more comfortable
  • Fear, anxiety and pain are often associated with surgery.
  • Anxiety and CNS stimulation tend to counteract a smooth induction into anesthesia
  • CNS depressants may be administered before surgery to assist in a smooth induction
71
Q

Examples of Adjunct Medications used with Anesthesia

A

analgesics
antianxiety
anitbiotics

72
Q

Antiemetic drugs
Droperidol

(Adjunct Medications used with Anesthesia)

A

-effective as a single agent antiemetic for prophylaxis and treatment

Serotonin (5HT3) antagonists – ondansetron; first line therapy effective 4-6 hours

Neurokinin (NK1) antagonists – aprepitant; prophylaxis

Propofol and dexamethasone – prevents PONV up to 72 hours

73
Q

Multimodal treatment for PONV

  • Dopamine (d2) receptor antagonists
  • antihistamines
  • anticholinergics

(Adjunct Medications used with Anesthesia)

A

Used alone or in combination with the first-line drugs, but alone these drugs don’t have the efficacy that serotonin antagonists offer

74
Q

Monitoring patients

A
  • Allergic reactions – many are not aware of allergies they have; anaphylacytoid reactions are rare with anesthetics
  • Black box warning
  • Vital signs – should be monitored before, during, and after administration
  • CNS depression – may experience a “hung over”or disoriented feeling
  • Malignant hyperthermia – occurs only in certain individuals; increase is body temp, acidosis, electrolyte imbalance and shock

Drug interactions

  • Droperidol – lengthen the QT interval in the heart
  • Propofol – special handling is needed
75
Q

Propofol handling technique

A
  • Instructions on handling and disposition are provided on the box.
  • Strict aseptic technique needs to be followed.
  • Should be used with caution in patients with lipid metabolism disorders
76
Q

Solution incompatibilities

A
  • Drug admixture - Adding solutions to an existing intravenous line or by mixing two or more drugs in the same syringe
  • Not all drugs are compatible.
77
Q

Preferred Intravenous anesthetics

A

Propofol is the most frequently used induction anesthetic.

For MAC, midazolam, propofol, ketamine, fentanyl, alfentinil, and lidocaine are used.

78
Q

Preferred Volatile anesthetics

A

Nitrous oxide, enflurane, sevoflurane, and isoflurane