Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EXCELPEDODENT > Chapter 9 Part I > Flashcards

Chapter 9 Part I Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following traumas characterized by cranial base - facial separation, airway edema?

a) LeForte I
b) LeForte II
c) LeForte III

A

c) LeForte III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which gingival enlargement is primary of capillary origin?

A

Scorbutic gingivitis - vitC deficiency; severe pain; spontaneous hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During what stage of dental development are most growth modification treatments carried out?

A

LATE MIXED dentition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which is characterized by brachifacial -short face and FMA less than 21?

a) Class 2 Div 1
b) Class 2 Div 2

A

b) Class 2 Div 2

Class 2 Div 1: Convex profile, Dolichofacial, FMA greater than 31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If suspicious of a LeForte fracture, what type of scan should be ordered?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: Protein deficiency in children results in smaller teeth; crowded/rotated teeth; late third molar eruption; breakdown of cancellous bone; retarded cementum deposition; higher rates of caries

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does a Towne’s View radiograph capture?

A

Body of the mandible; angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common lesion (trauma) in the pro-facial region?

A

Laceration; discontinuity in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For prophylaxis for patients with h/o rheumatic heart disease or congenital heart disease, what are the dosages for clindamycin in adults and children?

A

600 mg adults

20 mg/kg child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a cariogram?

A

graphical model uses an algorithm to assess caries risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the primary bacterial offenders in Localized juvenile periodontitis? What about generaliezd juvenile periodontitis?

A

Bacteroides + AA, IgG2

Pg + AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two tooth brushing techniques that should be used during the mixed dentition?

A

1) Rolling stroke

2) Press role method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can you use to correct an anterior open bite?

A

maxillary hawley appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What test predicts the nature of combined acidogenic organisms in the oral cavity?

A

Snyder’s test: based on the amount of acid produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can you use to correct single tooth posterior crossbite?

A

cross bite elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hepatitis B is the only immunization recommended at birth and 1 month

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common transverse problem in the preadolescent?

A

maxillary constriction with posterior crossbite, check primary canines for mandibular interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the concentration (%) of glutaraldehyde used for pulpotomies?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which is the final facial bone to complete normal growth and development?

A

Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In patients with cerebral palsy, what % are spastic?

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can happen to a patient with depressed zygomatic arch fracture?

A

Trismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For prophylaxis for patients with h/o rheumatic heart disease or congenital heart disease, what are the dosages for azithromycin or clarithromycin in adults and children?

A

500 mg adults

15 mg/kg child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For mouth guards, which type is a stock mouth guard (OTC)?

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III

A

c) Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: Maxillary constriction with posterior crossbite is the most common pre-adolescent transverse problem

A

True

Check primary canines for mandibular interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following shunts does not require SBE prophylaxis?

a) Ventriculatrial
b) Ventriculocardiac
c) Ventriculovenus
d) Ventriculoperitoneal

A

d) Ventriculoperitoneal (VP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which oft the following is characterized as periorbital hematoma; anterior cranial bone fracture?

a) Battle’s Sign
b) Raccoon Sign

A

b) Raccoon Sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following involves one side of the body?

a) Monoplegia
b) Hemiplegia
c) Paraplegia
d) Quadriplegia
e) Diplegia

A

b) Hemiplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the term for the complete excision of the frenum and its periosteal attachment?

A

Frenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the term for an injury to the tooth supporting structure with abnormal loosening but without displacement?

A

Subluxation
Diagnosis: Tooth mobility without displacement. sulcular bleeding might be found, radiographic abnormalities not expected
Tx Objectives: optimize healing of the periodontal ligaments and neurovascular supply
Prognosis: Primary: return to normal within 2 weeks
Permanent teeth with closed apex might undergo pulpal necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Subacute bacterial endocarditis develops in an individual who has a pre-existing congenital cardiac disease or rheumatic valvular lesion. What bacteria causes it?

A

Strep viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of procedure should be performed for lage, fleshy frenums?

A

Frenectomy

The need for frenectomy or frenotomy should be based on the ability to maintain gingival health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the term for an incomplete fracture of enamel only?

A 
Infraction
Incomplete fracture of the enamel
Diagnosis: Craze line
Tx Objective: Maintain structural integrity
Prognosis: Complications are unusual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of dysfunction if cerebral palsy?

A

neuromuscular 1/200 live births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: #s 6 and 11 erupt between 11-12 years of age

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F: Calcium hydroxide is the material of choice for pulpotomy of permanent teeth, but not for primary teeth. Calcium hydroxide causes internal resorption in primary teeth. pH of CaOH is 12 - very alkaline. Necrosis occurs underneath CaOH. Within FOUR weeks a calcium bridge forms

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the best method for detection of risk in 2-3 yos?

A

Cariostat: colorimetric test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What did Orland and Fitzgerald demonstrate? (hint: animals)

A

animals fed a high carb diet with no germs were caries free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If a patient has deviation of the mandible, what area is traumatized?

A

Condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What two methods are used to measure pulp circulation?

A

1) Laser Doppler flow meter

2) Pulseoximeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the organic acids involved in demineralization?

A

LAP!
Lactic acid
Acetic acid
Pyretic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F: Trauma to the primary dentition usually occurs from age 1-2.5 years; class 2 div 1 care more prone to dental trauma

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does a Caldwell view radiograph capture?

A

Frontal sinus, frontal bone, ethmoidal cells, zygomatic frontal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following involves both legs?

a) Monoplegia
b) Hemiplegia
c) Paraplegia
d) Quadriplegia
e) Diplegia

A

c) Paraplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following involves all four limbs?

a) Monoplegia
b) Hemiplegia
c) Paraplegia
d) Quadriplegia
e) Diplegia

A

d) Quadriplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fracture of _______ = sublingual hemotoma

a) Maxilla
b) Mandible

A

b) MAndible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F: Local anesthetic solutions contain a vehicle (water), fungicide (thymol) and a preservative (methylparaben)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the term for lasting for a long time or longer than expected or usual?

A

Protracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which bacteria are involved in endocarditis?

A

1) Strep viridans
2) Staph aureus
3) Enterococcus
4) Pseudomonas
5) Serratia
6) Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following traumas characterized by nasomaxillary fracture?

a) LeForte I
b) LeForte II
c) LeForte III

A

b) LeForte II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which is trisomy 21?

a) Downs Syndrome
b) Patau Syndrome
c) Edward’s Syndrome

A

a) Downs syndrome

51
Q

How many microns does subsurface demineralization penetrate below the surface?

A

10-15 microns

52
Q

What type of hemorrhage do you expect with a fracture to the zygoma, nasal bone, or frontal bone?

A

Subconjunctival hemorrhage with periorbital ecchymosis and edema
Take a Water’s View Film

53
Q

T/F: An intercanine distance (IE the linear distance between the central point of the cuspid tips) measuring more than 3 cm is suspicious of an adult human bite

A

True

54
Q

Which of the following involves both legs and part of the arms?

a) Monoplegia
b) Hemiplegia
c) Paraplegia
d) Quadriplegia
e) Diplegia

A

e) Diplegia

55
Q

What is an uncomplicated crown fracture?

A

Enamel or enamel+dentin fracture that does not involve the pulp; diagnosis: loss of tooth structure

56
Q

For an avulsion of a tooth with a closed apex, how long should the tooth be stabilized for?

A

4 weeks using flexible splint

57
Q

What does a Water’s View radiograph capture?

A

mid face, zygoma, maxilla, maxillary orbital floors, nasal pyramid

58
Q

Which is trisomy 18?

a) Downs Syndrome
b) Patau Syndrome
c) Edwards Syndrome

A

c) Edwards Syndrome

59
Q

MAternal or neonatal vitamin __ deficiency may cause defective formation of teeth; Maternal and neonatal protein deficiency affects the salivary glands

A

Vitamin A

60
Q

What is the significance of Fone’s method of tooth brushing?

A

Stimulates the gingiva

61
Q

What is the preferred block for a surgical removal of impacted canines in a child?

A

Infraorbital block

62
Q

What three elements are cariogenic?

A

Magnesium
Selenium
Cadmium
Maggie Sells gen and cadmium

63
Q

T/F: Pellicle is NOT the same as plaque

A

TRUE; pellicle is deposited on tooth soon after it erupts into the oral cavity

64
Q

Which type of reflex is described?

The patient’s head suddenly falls backward while the patient is supine; the back assumes the position known as posutral extension; the legs and arms straighten out and the neck and back will arch

a) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
b) Tonic Labyrinthine reflex
c) Startle Reflex

A

b) Tonic Labyrinthine reflex

65
Q

T/F: Class 2 div 2 care more prone to dental trauma

A

False

Class 2 div 1

66
Q

What % of children who are abused have head and neck trauma?

A

More than 50% of cases of child abuse involve craniofacial structures, head, face, neck

67
Q

For an avulsion of a tooth with a closed apex, what can be done to slow down osseous replacement of the tooth?

A

Treat root surface with fluoride prior to replantation (2% sodium fluoride solution for 20 minutes)

68
Q

For an avulsion of a tooth with a closed apex, what antibiotics should be administered?

A

First Choice: Tetracycline (Doxy BID 7 days) Risk of discoloration of permanent teeth must be considered before systemic administration of tetracycline in young patients

69
Q

For mouth guards, which type is a mouth formed (boil and bite)?

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III

A

b) Type II

70
Q

T/F: A sublingual hematoma is diagnostic of mandibular fracture

A

True

71
Q

If loss of a primary first molar occurs at the age of 8-9-10, the eruption of the premolars will be greatly accelerated/deccelerated

A

accelerated

72
Q

For electrical oral burn patients, the parents should be informed of the possibility of spontaneous arterial hemorrhage during the first 3 weeks usually from what arteries?

A

Facial/Lingual artery bleed

73
Q

Which of the following involves one limb only?

a) Monoplegia
b) Hemiplegia
c) Paraplegia
d) Quadriplegia
e) Diplegia

A

a) Monoplegia

74
Q

Eruption sequestrium is usually seen as a tiny spicule of bone overlying which tooth?

A

Permanent 1st molar

75
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a mastoid hematoma; posterior cranial bone fracture?

a) Battle’s Sign
b) Raccoon Sign

A

a) Battle’s Sign

76
Q

What is the term for a patient with a mastoid hematoma and is indicative of a posterior cranial bone fracture?

A

Battle’s Sign

77
Q

When doing a pedo greater palatine block, where is your landmark?

A

10 mm posterior to distal surface of A or J

78
Q

What 3 letter sounds may be limited if frenum is too tight?

A

T/D/L

79
Q

Most primary arches have what shape?

A

ovoid

80
Q

Growth discrepancy and lack of AP space are major etiologic factors for what type of malocclusion?

A

Class II

81
Q

What type of diet do patients with phenylketonuria have to be on?

A

low protein diet

82
Q

What is the only immunization recommended at birth and one month?

A

Heptatitis B

83
Q

In a pedo IAN, the mandibular foramen is HIGHER/LOWER than the occlusal plane; the injection must be made slightly HIGHER/LOWER and more posterior than that of an adult

A

LOWER

84
Q

What is an infraction?

A

Incomplete fracture of enamel

85
Q

For an avulsion of a tooth with a closed apex in young patients, what antibiotic should be administered?

A

PenV or amoxicillin

86
Q

In patients with cerebral palsy, what % are dyskinetic?

A

15%

athetosis - twisting or writhing involuntary movements; choreoathetosis: jerky movements; bruxism=dyskinetic

87
Q

What is the theory of proteolysis developed by Gottlieb and Frisbie?

A

dental caries is caused by organisms invading the enamel lamellae and involving dentin

88
Q

What is the term for the necrotic tissue of an electrical burn

A

Eschar

Coagulation necrosis = electrical burn

89
Q

Where is the #1 area to see an eruption cyst?**

A

Primary second molar region (A,J,K,T)

Also seen in first permanent molar regions (3,14,19,30)

90
Q

What is the term for the incision of the periosteal fiber attachment and possibly suturing of the frenum to the periosteum at the base of the vestibule?

A

Frenotomy

associated with less postoperative discomfort than a frenectomy and will usually suffice

91
Q

At what age do most patients get rheumatic fever?

A

6-15 yo

92
Q

Complicated fractures involve the pulp, What factors are involved in the prognosis?

1) Injury to PDL
2) Age of the pulp exposure
3) Extent of dentin exposed
4) Stage of root development

A

4) Stage of root development

93
Q

What is the most effective topical anesthetic?

A

ethyl amino benzoate

94
Q

What test determines the ability of the acid producing bacteria in dental plaque to change the color of the supplied medium from dark blue to carrying shades of blue green yellow?

A

Cariostat

This is the best method for detection of risk in 2-3 year olds

95
Q

What is the term or displacement of the tooth in a direction other than axially?

A

Luxation

The PDL is torn and contusion or fracture of the supporting alveolar bone occurs

96
Q

What type of cerebral palsy do patients have difficulty in grasping objects?

A

Ataxic cerebral palsy; uncoordinated; not well balanced

97
Q

What is the most accepted theory of the etiology of dental caries?

A

Miller’s theory

acidogenic; chemicoparasitic theory

98
Q

What is the term for an injury to the tooth-supporting structures without abnormal loosening or displacement?

A

Concussion
Diagnosis: the tooth might be tender to pressure, percussion, and palpation without mobility, displacement, sulcular bleeding, or radiographic changes
Tx objectives: optimize healing of PDL and maintain pulp vitality
Prognosis: minimal risk of pulp necrosis. Mature permanent teeth with closed apex may undergo pulpal necrosis

99
Q

Which type of reflex is described?

The patients head is suddenly turned to one side, the arm and leg on the side to which the face is turned will extend and stiffen. The limbs on the opposite side will flex

a) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
b) Tonic Labyrinthine reflex
c) Startle Reflex

A

a) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex

100
Q

Out of all the mouth guards, which type if recommended by the Academy for Sports Dentistry?

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III

A

a) Type I

101
Q

Root fractures with the best prognosis are located in what part of the root?

A

Apical third of the root

102
Q

T/F: Fats have an anticariogenic effect; highly concentrated fatty acids inhibit the growth of cariogenic bacteria

A

TRUE

103
Q

Which of the following traumas characterized by maxillary separation from midface, maxilla is mobile?

a) LeForte I
b) LeForte II
c) LeForte III

A

a) LeForte I

104
Q

What is the term for a hematoma in subcutaneous tissue as a result of blunt trauma causing edema?

A

Contusion

105
Q

Describe Miller’s acidogenic;chemicoparasitic theory?

A

Dental caries is caused by acid, the acid is from the action of microorganisms on carbohydrates. The inorganic portion of the tooth is decalcified and then the organic substance is disintegrated

106
Q

What is Schatz proteolysis chelation theory?

A

ORGANIC component of enamel is attached by oral bacteria that can chelate and dissolve tooth minerals

107
Q

For electrical oral burn patients, when do you insert an appliance for the burn patient?

A

Day 10-14
Ideally, pt with burn to mouth should be seen by dentist between the 5th and 10th day post accident. Initial appointment is probably most crucial to success or failure of treatment with burn appliance. The appliance is generally delivered between day 10-14 post burn

108
Q

In permanent molars gingival one third of enamel rods travel to the out surface incline in which direction?

A

Gingivally

109
Q

The interval between crown completion and eruption into FULL occlusion is ___ yrs

A

5 years

110
Q

Who is the father of IV sedation?

A

Jorgenson

111
Q

Pt presents with a parulis on T. PMH reveals pt is susceptible to subacute bacterial endocarditis. How do you proceed?

A

EXTRACT due to medical history. in healthy patient you would do a pulpectomy

112
Q

What is the term for collection of debri, cells, microorganisms adherent to plaque, teeth, gingiva, or appliances?

A

materia alba

113
Q

What is the term for when the tooth is displaced laterally. The tooth might be locked
Radiographically: increase in PDL space and displacement of the apex

A

Luxation

114
Q

For mouth guards, which type is a custom fabricated?

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III

A

a) Type I

115
Q

Which type of reflex is described?

Sudden involuntary and forceful bodily movements produced when the patient is surprised by stimuli such as sudden noises or unexpected movements by other people

a) Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
b) Tonic Labyrinthine reflex
c) Startle Reflex

A

c) Startle reflex

116
Q

Which is more prone to dental trauma?

a) Class 2 Div 1
b) Class 2 Div 2

A

a) Class 2 Div 1
Convex profile, Dolichofacial = Class 2 Div 1
FMA greater than 31

117
Q

Intrusion of primary teeth on radiographs. Tooth#F is displaced palatally, what do you expect to see on the radiograph?

A

Compared with #E, #F will appear elongated

RElationship between intruded primary tooth and the follicle of the succedaneous must be established
Labial displacement: The apical tip can be seen and the tooth appearing shorter than its contralateral
Lingual displacement: The apical tip cannot be seen and the tooth appears elongated

118
Q

Acute bacterial endocarditis is a fulminating disease that occurs as a result of what pathogen attacking a normal heart?

A

Staphylococcus, Group A Strep; pneumococcus

119
Q

T/F: Patients with metabolic disturbances like diabetes; phenylketonuria; Prader-Willi syndrome will have restrictive diets

A

True

120
Q

For prophylaxis for patients with h/o rheumatic heart disease or congenital heart disease, what are the dosages for amoxicillin in adults and children?

A

2 mg adults

50 mg/kg child

121
Q

Which is trisomy 13?

a) Downs Syndrome
b) Patau Syndrome
c) Edwards Syndrome

A

b) Patau Syndrome

122
Q

How thick should a type I mouthguard be?

A

The optimal thickness for EVA mouthguard material with a shore A HArdness of 80 is around 4 mm

123
Q

When a child falls with an object in his mouth, in what direction do you expect the anterior teeth to be displaced?

A

LAbially

124
Q

What type of necrosis occurs in electrical burns?

A

Coagulation necrosis

EXCELPEDODENT (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions