Chapter 9- Immune System Flashcards

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1
Q

Ebola virus can be transmitted via

A) fruit fallen from a tree.
B) direct contact with bodily fluids of an infected person.
C) agriculture/crops in an epidemic area.
D) any contact, like a handshake.

A

B) direct contact with bodily fluids of an infected person

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2
Q

Body defenses that respond to generalized tissue damage and many common pathogens are referred to as

A) phagocytic.
B) antipathogenic responses.
C) nonspecific mechanisms. 
D) lymphomas.
E) specific mechanisms.
A

C) nonspecific mechanisms

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3
Q

Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

A) rabies
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) toxic shock syndrome
E) tuberculosis
A

A) rabies

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4
Q

Bacteria are helpful to humans in many ways, including all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A) production of antibiotics
B) breakdown of raw sewage
C) digestion of cellulose in the human intestine
D) production of soy sauce
E) production of vitamins for the human body

A

C) digestion of cellulose in the human intestine

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5
Q

When comparing viruses and bacteria, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

A) Viruses are larger than bacteria.
B) Viruses are pathogens; bacteria are decomposers.
C) Viruses have membrane-bound organelles; bacteria do not have membrane-bound organelles.
D) Viruses and bacteria are both able to reproduce on their own.
E) Viruses and bacteria both contain genetic material.

A
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6
Q

The bubonic plague epidemic that swept through Europe between 1348 and 1350 A.D. was induced by a(n)

A) virus.
B) prion.
C) protozoan.
D) bacterium.
E) unidentified eukaryotic organism.
A

D) bacterium

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7
Q

Once a prion enters a nerve cell, it essentially

A) assumes the correct folding orientation for the protein.
B) stops the cascade of misfolding events associated with adjacent cells.
C) becomes self-propagating, causing misfolding of nearby normal proteins.
D) differentiates into a nonreplicating virus.
E) differentiates into a replicating virus.

A

C) becomes self-propagating, causing misfolding of nearby normal proteins

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8
Q

Antibiotics are most likely to be effective in the treatment of infections caused by

A) bacteria.
B) viruses.
C) parasitic worms.
D) lice and ticks.
E) prions.
A

A) bacteria

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9
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding lymph nodes?

A) They are located only in the digestive tract and neck.
B) They remove microorganisms and abnormal cells from the lymph and return them to blood circulation.
C) Macrophages but not lymphocytes can be found within lymph nodes.
D) They filter lymph fluid, trapping microorganisms and abnormal cells.
E) Lymph flows from the lymph vessels to the urinary system.

A

D) they filter lymph fluid, trapping microorganisms and abnormal cells

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10
Q

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the spleen?

A) It is located in the lower portion of the thoracic cavity.
B) Red pulp of the spleen stores excess blood.
C) White pulp of the spleen contains macrophages that kill microorganisms circulating in the lymph.
D) Red pulp of the spleen contains primarily lymphocytes.
E) The spleen has the same functions as the tonsils.

A

B) red pulp of the spleen stores excess blood

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11
Q

Which one of the following is/are located in the tonsils to filter out many of the microorganisms that enter the throat?

A) thymus
B) adenoids
C) lymphocytes
D) platelets
E) red blood cells
A

C) lymphocytes

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12
Q

Skin is able to prevent most microorganisms from entering the body by

A) producing alkaline secretions.
B) having keratin in the uppermost layer.
C) production of antibodies.
D) the adhesion junction in the skin preventing bacteria from entering.
E) releasing macrophages on the skin surface.

A

B) having keratin in the uppermost layer

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13
Q

Why do some physicians advise patients with a bladder infection to drink a lot of cranberry juice?

A) Cranberry juice contains chemicals that kill viruses and bacteria.
B) The increased volume of fluid in the bladder causes bacterial cells to burst as they absorb the excess fluid.
C) Cranberry juice makes the urine more acidic, decreasing the rate at which microorganisms can grow and reproduce.
D) Cranberry juice increases the efficiency of urine production by the kidneys.
E) Cranberry juice enhances the action of phagocytic cells.

A

C) cranberry juice makes the urine more acidic, decreasing the rate at which microorganisms can grow and reproduce

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14
Q

All of the following represent physical and/or chemical barriers that form the body’s first line of defense against pathogens EXCEPT which one?

A) tears
B) resident bacteria
C) skin surface
D) earwax
E) antibodies
A

E) antibodies

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15
Q

The release of chemicals from injured cells triggers histamine release from

A) macrophages.
B) B cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) phagocytes.
E) mast cells.
A

E) mast cells

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16
Q

The following is a list of steps involved in the process of phagocytosis. Which of the following answers indicates these steps in the CORRECT order?

  1. Lysosome fuses with the vesicle containing a foreign cell.
  2. Wastes from the foreign cell are removed.
  3. The foreign cell is surrounded by the cell membrane of the phagocyte. 4. Lysosomal enzymes break down the foreign cell.
  4. The foreign cell is contained within a vesicle.
A) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
D) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
E) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
A

C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

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17
Q

Which of the following leukocytes is most likely to be directly involved in the destruction of flukes (a parasitic flatworm)?

A) natural killer cells
B) eosinophils
C) neutrophils
D) B lymphocytes
E) basophils
A

B) eosinophils

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18
Q

Which of the following leukocytes kills its target cells, such as cancer cells or virus-infected cells, by releasing chemicals that break down the target cell membrane?

A) natural killer cells
B) B lymphocytes
C) basophils
D) T lymphocytes
E) macrophages
A

A) natural killer cells

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19
Q

All of the following are ways in which a mild fever participates as part of the body’s second line of defense and aids the body EXCEPT

A) increasing the metabolic rate of body cells.
B) speeding up defense reactions.
C) increasing the rate of tissue repair.
D) creating an inhospitable internal environment for pathogenic bacteria. E) enhancing the secretion of antibodies by plasma cells.

A

E) enhancing the secretion of antibodies by the plasma cells

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20
Q

All of the following are involved in the inflammatory response EXCEPT

A) antibodies.
B) mast cells.
C) histamine.
D) basophils.
E) phagocytes.
A

A) antibodies

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21
Q

Which of the following are proteins in the blood that can be activated to lyse bacterial cells, mark other bacterial cells for destruction, and enhance inflammation?

A) albumins
B) antibodies
C) complement
D) interferons
E) lymphokines
A

C) complement

22
Q

Viral-infected human cells often send out special proteins that serve as an early warning system to uninfected cells. In response, the uninfected cells develop antiviral proteins that protect them. The early warning proteins sent out by viral-infected cells are

A) complement.
B) interferon.
C) antibodies.
D) antigens.
E) antibiotics.
A

B) interferon

23
Q

Which of the following is associated with the specific defenses of the body?

A) cell-mediated immunity
B) phagocytosis
C) interferons
D) the inflammatory response 
E) the complement system
A

A) cell-mediated immunity

24
Q

Antibodies are classified by size, location, and function, and which one of the following represents the most common type of immunoglobulin?

A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) MHC
A

B) IgG

25
Q

Which one type of cells is responsible for producing and releasing antibodies?

A) red bone marrow
B) B lymphocytes
C) T lymphocytes
D) macrophages
E) natural killer cells
A

B) B lymphocytes

26
Q

Which one of the following is characteristic of T lymphocytes but NOT B lymphocytes?

A) direct attack of antigen-bearing cells
B) production of immunoglobulins
C) maturation in the red bone marrow
D) production of plasma cells
E) antibody-mediated immunity
A

A) direct attack of antigen-bearing cells

27
Q

The advantage of having memory cells in specific defenses is that

A) they remain in an active state, continuously producing antibodies.
B) if exposed to an antigen a second time, they quickly become plasma cells.
C) they prevent production of other proteins so that antibodies can be produced.
D) they produce antibodies and can become phagocytic.
E) they prevent viruses from entering the body a second time.

A

B) if exposed to an antigen a second time, they quickly become plasma cells

28
Q

Once a macrophage engulfs a bacterium, what happens to the foreign cell?

A) It is released into the lymph system for removal from the body.
B) It is released into the digestive tract for removal from the body.
C) The macrophage is attacked by antibodies, killing the cell and bacterium.
D) Antibodies penetrate the macrophage to lyse the bacterial cell.
E) The bacterium is killed by digestive enzymes released from lysosomes.

A

E) the bacterium is killed by digestive enzymes released from lysosomes

29
Q

Which of the following antibodies would most likely be involved with the immune response against a microorganism entering the digestive or reproductive tract?

A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgM
E) IgE
A

A) IgA

30
Q

Which of the following classes of antibodies activates the inflammatory response by causing the release of histamine?

A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgA
A

B) IgE

31
Q

During cytotoxic T cell attack of a target cell, which one of the following is released to pierce the cell membrane of the foreign cell, which ultimately kills the target cell?

A) interferon
B) eosinophil
C) histamine
D) perforin
E) antibody
A

D) perforin

32
Q

Which one of the following is correct regarding the structure of an antibody?

A) An antibody is made up of two polypeptide chains linked by hydrogen bonds.
B) The four polypeptide chains that make up an antibody molecule are linked by disulfide bonds.
C) The constant regions of the polypeptides in an antibody form antigen-binding sites.
D) Only one polypeptide in an antibody has a constant region and a variable region.
E) The polypeptides making up an antibody are connected by hydrogen bonds.

A

B) the four polypeptide chains that are make up an antibody molecule are linked by disulfide bonds

33
Q

Which one of the following types of T cells is a critical component of the immune system because it stimulates and enhances the activity of other components of the immune system?

A) T suppressor cell
B) T memory cell
C) T helper cell
D) cytotoxic T cell
E) natural killer cells
A

C) T helper cell

34
Q

Which one of the following enables T helper cells to stimulate and activate other cells of the immune response?

A) interferon
B) cytokines
C) antibodies
D) complement
E) histamine
A

B) cytokines

35
Q

Which immune system cell must be presented with antigen by an antigen-presenting cell such as a macrophage, in order to become appropriately activated?

A) B lymphocyte
B) plasma cell
C) macrophage
D) T lymphocyte
E) natural killer cell
A

D) T lymphocyte

36
Q

Which one of the following best explains why people get so many colds in their lifetime?

A) The immune system has a hard time identifying the viruses that cause the colds.
B) The viruses that cause these colds constantly produce new antibodies, which cause the symptoms.
C) These individuals do not produce enough white blood cells.
D) The viruses that cause colds evolve rapidly, which results in a change in their antigenic structure.
E) The B cells of these individuals destroy their T cells.

A

D) the viruses that cause colds evolve rapidly, which results in a change in their antigenic structure

37
Q

Vaccines contain

A) memory cells against the pathogen.
B) antigens of the pathogen.
C) antibodies of the pathogen.
D) lymphokines.
E) T cells programmed to attack the pathogen.
A

B) antigens of the pathogen

38
Q

Passive immunity differs from active immunity in that passive immunity

A) causes long-term immunity.
B) involves the administration of preformed antibodies.
C) results in the production of antibodies.
D) is not effective against a preexisting condition.
E) results in the production of memory cells.

A

B) involves the administration of preformed antibodies

39
Q

An individual with an uncertain vaccine history has been brought to the emergency room after receiving severe lacerations in an accident with farm machinery. In addition to administering a tetanus toxoid vaccine, he is given a shot of tetanus immune globulin (TIG), a form of passive immunization. Why are both necessary?

A) The tetanus vaccine provides immediate protection, and the tetanus immune globulin provides long-term protection.
B) The doctor is not sure which will work faster in this patient so decides to administer both.
C) The tetanus immune globulin is given only when there are severe injuries and a high risk of infection.
D) Tetanus immune globulin is always given along with the tetanus vaccine.
E) The tetanus immune globulin provides immediate, short-term protection, and the tetanus vaccine provides long-term protection.

A

E) the tetanus immune globulin provides immediate, short-term protection, and the tetanus vaccine provides long-term protection

40
Q

Which one of the following would result in passive immunity?

A) vaccination
B) past occurrence of an infection or disease
C) production of memory cells
D) movement of antibodies across the placenta from mother to child
E) stimulation of T cells and B cells by an antigen

A

D) movement of antibodies across the placenta from mother to child

41
Q

All of the following are used in making monoclonal antibodies EXCEPT which one?

A) mouse T cells from thymus
B) mouse B cells from spleen
C) specific antigen injected into mouse
D) myeloma (cancer) cells
E) cell culture media for hybridoma cells
A

A) mouse T cells from thymus

42
Q

Antibiotics kill bacterial cells but do not (usually) damage human cells by taking advantage of the difference between human and bacterial cells. These differences include

A) bacterial cells have cell walls, human cells do not.
B) bacterial ribosomes are larger than those of humans.
C) protein synthesis in bacteria is identical to that in human cells.
D) bacterial cells have a cell membrane, human cells do not.
E) human and bacterial DNA are enclosed in a nucleus.

A

A) bacterial cells have cell walls, human cells do not

43
Q

All of the following are routinely done to assure a successful organ transplant and minimize the chance of organ rejection EXCEPT which one?

A) match the ABO blood types of donor and recipient
B) match the MHC tissue types of donor and recipient
C) irradiate the recipient to knock out his or her immune system prior to the transplant
D) give the recipient immunosuppressive drugs to suppress reactions against the transplanted tissue
E) give the recipient antibiotics to control any infections

A

C) irradiate the recipient to knock out his or her immune system prior to the transplant

44
Q

Any substance that produces an inappropriate response of the immune system is referred to as a(an)

A) allergen.
B) antibody.
C) plasma cell.
D) allergy.
E) perforin.
A

A) allergen

45
Q

Lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder in which the body attacks

A) its own connective tissue.
B) the brain.
C) the spleen.
D) its own antibodies.
E) heart tissue.
A

A) it’s own connective tissue

46
Q

All of the following are involved in the generation of an allergic response EXCEPT which one?

A) allergen
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) mast cells and basophils
E) histamine
A

C) IgG

47
Q

HIV is classified as a retrovirus because

A) it infects only cells with a CD4 receptor.
B) it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell.
C) this virus is composed of two cells surrounded by a lipoprotein coat.
D) it reverts to an inactive form when it infects B lymphocytes.
E) it causes the production of HIV antibodies.

A

B) it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell

48
Q

Which of the following body fluids does not transmit HIV from human to human?

A) blood
B) semen
C) saliva
D) vaginal fluid
E) breast milk
A

C) saliva

49
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding HIV and AIDS?

A) Most of the people infected with HIV live in South America, where the disease originated.
B) Approximately 100,000 people worldwide are newly diagnosed with HIV each day.
C) Due to improved availability of drugs combating HIV in the United States, there is an increase in the life span of people living with AIDS.
D) Symptoms of AIDS appear quickly after HIV detection.
E) More than 95% of people living with HIV will die within five years.

A

C) due to improved availability of drugs combating HIV in the United States, there is an increase in the life span of people living with AIDS

50
Q

Which of the following best describes Phase I of HIV infection?

A) T cell count of 100 per cubic millimeter of blood
B) presence of an opportunistic infection
C) swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, body aches
D) onset of AIDS
E) absence of HIV antibodies

A

C) swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, body aches