Chapter 7- Blood Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

All of the following are ways in which blood functions to maintain homeostasis in the human body EXCEPT which one?
A) moving carbon dioxide away from cells following completion of aerobic metabolism
B) conducting action potentials that originate in the nervous system to help with cell-cell communication
C) transporting amino acids and other nutrients derived from digestion to all tissues in the body
D) transporting hormones and other chemical messengers throughout the body from their point of secretion to their targets
E) regulating the pH of body fluids

A

B) conducting action potentials that originate in the nervous system to help with cell-cell communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

About 55% of whole blood is ________, which is/are mostly made up of water.

A) plasma
B) hemoglobin
C) white blood cells
D) clotting proteins
E) hematocrit
A

A) plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Albumin proteins in human blood function

A) to initiate blood clotting.
B) to transport oxygen to target cells.
C) to maintain blood volume.
D) as electrolytes.
E) to attack foreign organisms that enter the blood.
A

C) to maintain blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Albumin, alpha globulin, beta globulin, and gamma globulin are all examples of

A) plasma proteins.
B) antibodies.
C) white blood cells.
D) clotting factors.
E) hormones.
A

A) plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When oxygen availability drops, certain cells in the kidney respond by producing erythropoietin, which in turn stimulates an increase in red blood cells. This cellular response represents

A) the clotting mechanism.
B) negative feedback.
C) positive feedback.
D) the all-or-none response.
E) aerobic metabolism.
A

B) negative feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which one of the following is a component of blood plasma?

A) collagen
B) hemoglobin
C) bone
D) water
E) mitochondria
A

D) water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When the hormone erythropoietin is released in response to low oxygen levels, where is it transported to stimulate red blood cell production?

A) kidney
B) spleen
C) red bone marrow 
D) liver
E) throughout plasma
A

C) red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An increased risk for cardiovascular health problems is associated with

A) an elevated level of hemoglobin.
B) high blood levels of HDLs.
C) decreased production of albumins.
D) high blood levels of LDLs. 
E) low blood levels of LDLs.
A

D) high blood levels of LDLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which one of the following populations of cells is most markedly increased during bacterial infections?

A) neutrophils
B) red blood cells
C) platelets
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes
A

A) neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Histamine is released from which one of the following types of leukocyte to stimulate the inflammatory response?

A) lymphocyte
B) basophil
C) eosinophil
D) neutrophil
E) monocyte
A

B) basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A damaged red blood cell is removed from circulation by

A) phagocytosis by macrophages in the spleen.
B) basophils releasing histamine to stimulate breakdown of RBCs.
C) returning to red bone marrow and autolyzing.
D) being actively transported into macrophages in the liver and spleen. E) endocytosis directed by monocytes.

A

A) phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Unlike white blood cells, red blood cells lose their ________ and ________ as they mature.

A) nucleus; organelles
B) nucleus; ATP
C) organelles; plasma membrane
D) nucleolus; cytoplasm
E) flexibility; shape
A

A) nucleus; organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A scientist is interested in doing a research project on hemoglobin. From which one of the following could he extract the hemoglobin for his study?

A) globulins
B) white blood cells
C) platelets
D) clotting proteins
E) red blood cells
A

E) red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Removal of the heme group from hemoglobin would result in
A) red blood cells not being able to reproduce.
B) white blood cells not being able to reproduce.
C) an inability for blood to clot.
D) red blood cells not being able to bind oxygen.
E) an inability of the spleen to remove worn-out red blood cells from circulation.

A

D) red blood cells not being able to bind oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding deoxyhemoglobin?

A) Deoxyhemoglobin delivers oxygen to tissues that have a high oxygen demand.
B) Deoxyhemoglobin has a bright red color.
C) Deoxyhemoglobin is found in blood returning to the heart from the lower extremities.
D) Deoxyhemoglobin would form in organs with a high concentration of oxygen, such as the lungs.
E) Deoxyhemoglobin is located in white blood cells, unlike oxyhemoglobin.

A

C) deoxyhemoglobin is found in blood returning to the heart from the lower extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A researcher wants to produce antibodies by growing cells in the laboratory. What cell population would be necessary to accomplish this?

A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) red blood cells
D) lymphocytes
E) eosinophils
A

D) lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When a blood vessel gets damaged, contractions of smooth muscle referred to as ________ help constrict the vessel to reduce blood flow.

A) vascular spasms
B) hemostasis
C) homeostasis
D) formed elements
E) endocytosis
A

A) vascular spasms

18
Q

During the formation of a blood clot, conversion of prothrombin into the enzyme thrombin requires

A) mitochondria.
B) transport of proteins from platelets.
C) calcium ions.
D) leukocytes.
E) albumin.
A

C) calcium ions

19
Q

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the “recycling” of hemoglobin?

A) The peptide chains are broken down into their constituent fatty acids.
B) The iron atoms are returned to the red bone marrow.
C) The heme groups are converted to urine by the kidneys.
D) The peptide chains are transported intact to the bone marrow for reuse.
E) The heme groups with their iron atoms are transported to the spleen.

A

B) the iron atoms are returned to the red bone marrow

20
Q

A high hematocrit might indicate

A) anemia.
B) too many white blood cells in circulation. 
C) inadequate red blood cell production.
D) excessive production of platelets.
E) polycythemia.
A

E) polycythemia

21
Q

Blood doping, practiced by many athletes involved in the Tour de France as well as other sports, involves the illegal use of drugs to

A) increase circulation.
B) increase the amount of oxygen carried in blood.
C) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in blood.
D) elevate the rate of hemostasis.
E) increase red bone marrow production.

A

B) increase the amount of oxygen carried in blood

22
Q

As an erythroblast develops into an erythrocyte, it

A) becomes filled with clotting proteins.
B) begins to manufacture platelets.
C) loses its ability to reproduce.
D) takes on the characteristics of an immature monocyte.
E) undergoes active aerobic metabolism.

A

C) loses its ability to reproduce

23
Q

Foreign cells that enter the human body have unique cell surface proteins, known as ________, which stimulate the body’s defense to attack.

A) leukocytes
B) Rh factors
C) antibodies
D) platelets
E) antigens
A

E) antigens

24
Q

Dead and injured white blood cells are removed from circulation by the

A) spleen.
B) tonsils.
C) red bone marrow.
D) kidney.
E) thymus.
A

A) spleen

25
Q

Which one of the following components of blood increase in number in response to the presence of an infectious agent?

A) clotting factors
B) albumins
C) white blood cells 
D) red blood cells 
E) platelets
A

White blood cells

26
Q

The inflammatory response is initiated by the release of ________ from basophils.

A) histamine
B) hemoglobin
C) clotting factors
D) granulosen
E) erythropoietin
A

A) histamine

27
Q

Blood displays a bright red color when

A) oxygen is released by hemoglobin as blood travels through capillaries.
B) four oxygen molecules bind to hemoglobin to create oxyhemoglobin.
C) plasma albumin levels increase as blood goes through the lungs.
D) carbon dioxide binds to the heme group of hemoglobin.
E) deoxyhemoglobin is formed in blood plasma.

A

B) four oxygen molecules bind to hemoglobin to create oxyhemoglobin

28
Q

Eosinophils are especially important in defending the human body from infection by

A) bacteria.
B) viruses.
C) molds.
D) large parasites.
E) any type of microorganism.
A

D) large parasites

29
Q

Which one of the following types of white blood cells is capable of phagocytosis?

A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) B lymphocytes
E) both eosinophils and B lymphocytes
A

C) neutrophils

30
Q

Which one of the following formed elements in the blood is not a cell but is actually a fragment of a cell?

A) monocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
D) platelet
E) plasma
A

D) platelet

31
Q

Which one of the following occurs first in the process of hemostasis?

A) blood clotting
B) production of fibrin
C) formation of a platelet plug
D) vascular spasm
E) destruction of calcium ions
A

D) vascular spasm

32
Q

Which one of the following is directly involved in the process of blood clotting?

A) sodium ions
B) antigen
C) fibrin
D) clotting factor XX
E) globulins
A

C) fibrin

33
Q

A physician finds that one of his patients has the following problems: Blood clots very slowly or not at all, and severe bruises result from even the most minor bumps. Which one of the following conditions would likely be diagnosed based on this information?

A) polycythemia
B) hemophilia
C) AIDS
D) anemia
E) mononucleosis
A

B) hemophila

34
Q

Donating blood in the United States

A) requires that the donor be at least age 17.
B) does not involve a physical examination.
C) though beneficial, may take several hours to complete.
D) depends on donors with no prior sexual history.
E) is easy and painless, and many donors are allowed to give 5 to 10 units at a time.

A

A) requires that the donor be at least age 17

35
Q

Which one of the following is a human blood type?

A) E+
B) B-
C) ABO-
D) Rh
E) Rh+
A

B) B-

36
Q

If an individual is O+, which of the following antigens are on the surface of his or her red blood cells?

A) O and Rh
B) A, B, and Rh
C) Rh
D) O
E) A and B
A

C) Rh

37
Q

Which one of the following blood types can a person with blood type B safely receive in a blood transfusion?

A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) B and O
A

E) B and O

38
Q

Results of an ABO blood typing indicate agglutination reactions when anti-A and anti-B are added to the blood sample. The blood type of the individual would therefore be

A) A.
B) B.
C) O.
D) AB.
E) Not enough information given to determine blood type.
A

D) AB

39
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn could result from which one of the following situations?

A) mother is Rh+; fetus is Rh-
B) mother is Rh-; fetus is Rh+
C) mother is Rh+; fetus is Rh+
D) mother is Rh-; fetus is Rh-

A

B) mother is Rh-; fetus is Rh+

40
Q

The development of a blood substitute would be welcomed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT which one?

A) Human blood may carry and transmit infectious agents.
B) Human blood storage requires refrigeration, which might not be available in developing countries.
C) The supply of donated human blood generally cannot keep up with the demand.
D) Transfused blood rarely persists for more than a few days in the recipient.
E) Typing and cross-matching are necessary with human blood, and the right type may not be available

A

D) transfused blood rarely persists for more than a few days in the recipient

41
Q

The Epstein-Barr virus can induce a contagious infection of lymphocytes referred to as

A) toxemia
B) septicemia
C) leukemia
D) anemia
E) mononucleosis
A

E) mononucleosis