Chapter 9-Foundations of Group Behavior Flashcards
What sort of groups is defined by the organization's structure? A) informal B) task C) friendship D) interest E) formal
E) Formal
When do informal groups appear?
A) in response to the need for social contact
B) in reaction to formal groups
C) as a result of social needs
D) most frequently in bureaucracies
E) when formal groups cannot meet their goals
A) in response to the need for social contact
Julia, Bree and David work in different departments, but often eat lunch together. They are an example of what type of group? A) formal B) informal C) command D) task E) reactant
Informal
Which of the following is not one of the most common reasons people join groups? A) security B) status C) equity D) power E) goal achievement
C) equity
Most common reasons people join groups:
- Security
- Status
- Power
- Goal Achievement
Which of the following is true?
A) All groups provide the same benefits to their members.
B) Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
C) Different groups provide the same benefits to their members.
D) Group members seldom reap any benefits from their membership. E) all of the above
B) Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
When group members "test the waters" to determine what behaviors are acceptable, they are most likely in which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing
A) forming
John's group has developed a strong sense of group identity and has assimilated a common set of expectations defining appropriate member behavior. John's group has most likely completed which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing
C) norming
Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the group development model? A) forming B) storming C) joining D) adjourning
C) joining
The curriculum committee members are resisting some of the newly created policies and are in conflict over who will chair the committee. They are most likely in which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) adjourning
B) storming
For permanent work groups, which is the last stage in the group's development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing
D) performing
Which of the following statements is true concerning the five stage group development model?
A) Stage IV (performing) is always the most preferable.
B) Several stages can go on simultaneously.
C) Groups in Stage III will outperform those in Stage II.
D) Groups proceed clearly from one stage to the next sequentially.
B) Several stages can go on simultaneously.
What term is used for a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular position in a social unit? A) role B) role perception C) role identity D) role expectation E) identity
A) role
Our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation is A) role identity. B) role ambiguity. C) role expectation. D) role perception. E) role conflict.
D) role perception.
When Judith became a doctor she modeled her manner on her observations of more experienced doctors, and also on the behavior of doctors in medical dramas she had enjoyed watching as a child on TV. What is Judith modeling her manner upon? A) the role behaviors of doctors B) her role perception of doctors C) the role identity of doctors D) her role expectation of doctors E) the core role actions of doctors
B) her role perception of doctors
Which of the following is true of role identity?
A) Role perception creates the attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role. B) People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change.
C) There is considerable inertia in role identity after roles are changed.
D) Everyone is required to play one specific role in every situation.
E) No two people ever agree on what constitutes a role.
B) People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change.
Several years ago you began a small retail store to sell computer parts. The store grew and the business expanded to offer computer repair and custom programming. You have noticed that people have definite expectations about what their appropriate roles within the expanding company should be. You can help the people in the company understand their roles and the roles of other people by explaining some common facts about roles. Which of the following is not true?
A) Each person will be expected to play a number of diverse roles.
B) Most people have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands require major changes.
C) Role perception is how people believe others are expected to act in their given roles.
D) It may be helpful for them to view role expectations through the perspective of a psychological contract.
E) People can be flexible in the roles that they play.
C) Role perception is how people believe others are expected to act in their given roles.
John is expected to help customers in the retail store as well as perform computer repair work. He feels that every time he gets started on a repair, he is interrupted and doesn't know whether to finish his repair or wait on the customer. John suffers from role \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) conflict B) expectations C) perception D) identity E) duality
A) conflict
Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, and not show any favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. What term is used for this kind of belief? A) a norm B) a norm identity C) a role expectation D) a role perception E) a norm violation
C) a role expectation
Zach is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Zach would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. It is likely that Zach is experiencing which of the following? A) role conflict B) role expectation C) role perception D) psychological conflict E) cognitive reactance
A) role conflict
Zimbardo’s experiment at Stanford University demonstrated which of the following?
A) Individuals will often do anything as long as it’s consistent with their role identity.
B) Roles are defined by external authority figures.
C) Divergent role expectations create role conflict.
D) All groups have established norms.
E) People will conform even when they know they are wrong.
A) Individuals will often do anything as long as it’s consistent with their role identity.
What term is used for acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group's members? A) norms B) rules C) standards D) codes of behavior E) explicit contracts
A) norms
Which of the following is an example of a performance norm? A) how hard group members should work B) how the job should be performed C) how much tardiness is appropriate D) all of the above
D) all of the above
Which of the following is NOT a finding of the Hawthorne studies?
A) A worker’s behavior and sentiments are closely related.
B) Group standards are highly effective in establishing individual worker output.
C) Money was less a factor in determining worker output than were group standards, sentiments, and security.
D) Competition between groups will maximize group output.
E) Group influences are significant in affecting individual behavior.
D) Competition between groups will maximize group output.
The Hawthorne researchers began by examining
A) the relation between the physical environment and productivity.
B) the role of money in determining worker output.
C) the role of group standards in determining worker output.
D) Mayo’s research at Harvard.
E) the bank wiring group.
A) the relation between the physical environment and productivity.
What is the most often cited finding of the Hawthorne studies?.
A) A group’s performance is significantly affected by being observed.
B) Increases in illumination increase productivity.
C) Role identities often lead to role expectations.
D) Cohesive groups always perform at high levels.
E) Groups are gentle and subtle when enforcing their norms with their members.
A) A group’s performance is significantly affected by being observed.
In the follow-up portion of the Hawthorne studies with the bank wiring group, interviews determined that the group was operating well below its capability. Members were afraid that if they significantly increased their output,
A) the unit incentive rate would be cut.
B) the expected daily output will be increased. C) layoffs might occur.
D) slower workers will be reprimanded.
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
What term is used for the process by which an individual's desire for acceptance by the group and the pressure by the group on individual members to match its standards results in a change in individual attitudes and behaviors? A) conformity B) coercion C) commitment D) convergence E) confluence
A) conformity
38) The important groups to which people belong or hope to belong are known as A) conformist groups. B) status groups. C) reference groups. D) command groups. E) nonconformist groups.
C) reference groups.
In Asch's experiment, what percent of the subjects gave at least one answer that conformed to an option which they knew was wrong but was consistent with the replies provided by the other group members? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 60 E) 75
E) 75
The major contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of ________.
A) group norms pressing us toward conformity
B) how seating arrangements create conformity
C) convergence
D) status
E) cognitive dissonance
A) group norms pressing us toward conformity
Since Asch’s studies were conducted in the early 1950s, what updates have been identified in the research since that time?
A) Asch’s findings are considered culture bound.
B) The levels of conformity have steadily increased.
C) Conformity to social norms has been found to be lower in collectivist cultures.
D) Conformity to norms is no longer as powerful a force in groups.
A) Asch’s findings are considered culture bound.
What term is used for antisocial actions by organizational members who voluntarily violate significant norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or both? A) ethical dilemmas B) deviant workplace behavior C) abnormal behavior D) discommitment behavior E) reactive affirmation behavior
B) deviant workplace behavior
What percentage of employees have reported having suffered incivility in the workplace? A) 10 B) 20 C) 50 D) 75
C) 50
Sally works as a salesperson in a department store. Whenever a customer asks for an item that is in stock but not on display, she usually tells them that the product is out of stock. “It’s a pain going into the stock-room to find an item,” says Sally “Nobody in my department ever tells a customer the truth about what is in stock.” This example illustrates which of the following facts about deviant workplace behavior?
A) Deviant workplace behavior will arise when tasks that an employee is supposed to perform are unpleasant or difficult.
B) Most workers do not consider lying to a customer be deviant workplace behavior.
C) Workers will lie to customers as long as the customers do not complain about it.
D) Deviant workplace behavior flourishes where it’s supported by group norms.
E) Groups will come to their own conclusions about what is and isn’t appropriate.
D) Deviant workplace behavior flourishes where it’s supported by group norms.
Which of the following is NOT considered a deviant workplace behavior? A) leaving early
B) lying about hours worked
C) gossiping and spreading rumors
D) blaming coworkers
E) helping a co-worker complete a project
E) helping a co-worker complete a project
A recent study suggested that individuals working in a group were more likely to lie, cheat, and steal than those working alone. This may be due to the fact that
A) it’s easier to steal in numbers.
B) groups provide a shield of anonymity.
C) conformity is not critical with deviant behaviors.
D) it’s easier to rationalize deviant behavior than appropriate work behaviors in groups.
B) groups provide a shield of anonymity.
What term is used for the socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others? A) regency B) authority C) status D) command E) magnus
C) status
Which of the following people are likely to have low status in a group?
A) people who can allocate resources
B) a group’s formal leader
C) people whose contributions are critical to the group’s success
D) people who have little control over the group’s outcomes
E) the outstanding performers
D) people who have little control over the group’s outcomes
People who control the outcomes of a group through their power tend to be perceived as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) high conformists B) deviants C) high status D) low status E) highly anonymous
C) high status
Which of the following statements about status is NOT true?
A) Status is an important motivator.
B) Possession of personal characteristics that are positively valued by the group will give a member higher status.
C) Low-status members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members.
D) High-status members are better able to resist conformity pressures than lower status members.
E) Conformity is affected by status.
C) Low-status members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members.
Low-status people \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) speak out more often B) criticize more often C) are not likely to be fully utilized D) interrupt others more E) state more commands
C) are not likely to be fully utilized
High-status people tend to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) be more assertive B) assist more C) be more reflective D) have superior insight E) be well liked
A) be more assertive
A group is most likely to tolerate deviation from a group’s conformity norms by which of the following individuals?
A) a high-status individual who does not care about the social rewards the group provides
B) a high-status individual who is tightly integrated into the group’s social structure
C) a low-status individual who has only recently entered the group
D) a low-status individual who strongly wishes to integrate within the group E) a low-status individual who is not well regarded by the rest of the group
A) a high-status individual who does not care about the social rewards the group provides
If your group is engaged in problem solving, which of the following is likely to be the most effective group size? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 7
E) 7
What term is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working collectively than when working individually? A) groupthink B) the rule of diminishing returns C) social loafing D) groupshift E) clustering
C) social loafing
Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing? A) Increase the rewards the group is given if it succeeds.
B) Increase the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored.
C) Provide means by which individual efforts can be identified.
D) Increase the size of the group.
E) Increase the group’s workload.
C) Provide means by which individual efforts can be identified.
Joe is restructuring departments and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his departments. Joe remembers that he has learned in an OB course that ________.
A) small groups are good for developing ideas
B) large groups are better at taking action
C) social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively
D) team spirit always spurs individual effort and enhances the group’s overall productivity
E) groups composed of all men or all women are the most effective groups, in general
C) social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively
A common stereotype that the sense of team spirit spurs individual effort and enhances the group's overall productivity was challenged in a rope-pulling exercise conducted by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A) Mayo B) Ringelmann C) Hawthorne D) Janis E) Maslow
B) Ringelmann
What did Ringelmann conclude after he compared the results of individual and group performance?
A) The larger the group, the greater the individual productivity.
B) Individual productivity goes down as group size goes up.
C) Total productivity tends to decline in large groups.
D) Group size is not a determinant of individual productivity.
E) Groups served little purpose in organizations.
B) Individual productivity goes down as group size goes up.
Social loafing may be attributed to ________.
A) the rise of Internet usage
B) the fact that efficiency declines when individuals think that their contributions cannot be measured.
C) synergy
D) the more members, the greater the total productivity
E) accountability is obvious
B) the fact that efficiency declines when individuals think that their contributions cannot be measured.
All of the following are ways to prevent social loafing EXCEPT
A) Set group goals so the group has a common purpose to strive toward.
B) Increase intergroup competition.
C) Engage in peer evaluation to evaluate each member’s contribution to the group.
D) Ensure the group results cannot be attributed to any single person.
D) Ensure the group results cannot be attributed to any single person.
What term is used for the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are motivated to stay in the group? A) cohesiveness B) integration C) sociability D) reliability E) interdependence
A) cohesiveness
The relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on which norms established by the group? A) status-related B) decision-making C) performance-related D) conformity-related E) cohesiveness
C) performance-related
Which of the following is NOT likely to increase group cohesiveness?
A) increasing the group size
B) members spending a lot of time together
C) competition with other groups is increased
D) the group is physically isolated
E) providing group rewards
A) increasing the group size
What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?
A) Internal conflict will be high.
B) Internal conflict will be low.
C) Productivity will be high.
D) Productivity will be low.
E) It will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity.
D) Productivity will be low.
