Chapter 9 Flashcards

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1
Q

Where do single-cell eukaryotes that require oxygen to perform oxidative phosphorylation acquire it

A

Simple diffusion of oxygen from the surrounding medium

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2
Q

Ventilation

A

Simple movement of air in and out of the lung properly

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3
Q

Respiration

A

exchange of gases (between lungs and blood or other tissues of the body)

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4
Q

Conduction Zone

A

Parts of the respiratory system involved only in ventilation

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5
Q

Respiratory Zone

A

parts of the respiratory system involved in actual gas exchange

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6
Q

The respiratory system other tasks

A

pH regulation, thermoregulation, protection from diseases and particulate matter (mucociliary escalator, alveolar macrophages)

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7
Q

Pathway followed by inhaled air

A

nose -> nasal cavity -> pharynx -> larynx -> trachea -> primary bronchi -> bronchioles -> terminal bronchioles -> respiratory bronchioles -> alveolar duct -> alveoli

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8
Q

Nose

A

warming, humidifying and filtering inhaled air. Nasal hairs and sticky mucus act as filters

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9
Q

Nasal cavity

A

open space within the nose

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10
Q

Pharynx

A

throat (common pathway for air and food)

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11
Q

Larynx

A

made entirely out of cartilage to keep airway open, contains epiglottis which seals the trachea during swallowing, contains vocal chords

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12
Q

Trachea

A

passageway which remains open to permit airflow. Rings of cartilage prevent its collapse

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13
Q

Primary bronchi

A

Two; each one supplies one lung, collapse is prevented by small plates of cartilage

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14
Q

Bronchioles

A

1mm wide, contain no cartilage, made out of smooth muscle which allows their diameters to be regulated to adjust airflow

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15
Q

Terminal Bronchioles

A

final and smallest branches of the conduction system. Smooth muscle walls are too thick to allow for gas exchange

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16
Q

Alveoli

A

Structures across which gas diffuses. Very thin, one cell thick

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17
Q

What type of cell lines the entire respiratory tract

A

Epithelial columnar cells; too thick to assist in gas exchange and serve as a conduit for air, but some are specialized to secret mucus (goblet cells)

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18
Q

Mucociliary Escalator

A

columnar epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract have cilia which constantly sweep mucus towards the pharynx where they can be swallowed or coughed out

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19
Q

What structures are involved in gas exchange

A

Alveoli, alveolar ducts and the smallest bonchioles

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20
Q

What type of cells line gas exchange surfaces

A

single layer of thin delicate squamous epithelial cells

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21
Q

What method of protection do thin squamous epithelial cells use

A

Alveolar macrophages patrol the alveoli, engulfing foreign particles

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22
Q

Surfactant

A

Coats the alveoli, reduces surface tension to prevent collapse of the alveolar wall (fat cubodial epithelial cells secret surfactant)

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23
Q

Pulmonary Ventilation

A

Circulation of air into and out of the lungs to continuously replace the gasses in the alveoli with those in the atmosphere

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24
Q

Inspiration

A

active process driven by the contraction of the diaphragm

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25
Q

Expiration

A

Passive; driven by the elastic recoil of the lungs and does not require active muscle contraction

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26
Q

Two membranes that surround the lungs

A

parietal pleura and visceral pleura

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27
Q

Parietal Pleura

A

Lines the inside of the chest cavity

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28
Q

Visceral Pleura

A

Lines the surface of the lungs

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29
Q

Space found between the two pleura’s

A

Pleura membrane; negative pressured space (the two membranes are drawn together by a vacuum).

Also, a thin layer of fluid helps hold them together through surface tension

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30
Q

What muscles contract during inspiration?

A

diaphragm flattens and pulls the chest cavity downward, forcing it and the lungs to expand.

Intercostal muscles between the ribs, pulling the ribs upward and further expanding the chest cavity

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31
Q

Forced expiration

A

contraction of the abdominal muscles helps the expiration process by pressing upward on the diaphragm, shrinking the size of the lungs and forcing more air out (actively although expiration overall is passive)

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32
Q

Tidal volume

A

amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with normal light breathing. Equal to about 10% of the total volume of the lungs

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33
Q

Residual Volume

A

amount of air that remains in the lungs after the strongest possible expiration

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34
Q

Vital Capacity

A

maximum amount of air that can be forced out of the lungs after first taking the deepest possible breath

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35
Q

Total Lung Capacity

A

vital capacity plus the residual volume

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36
Q

What are the principle stimuli that affect ventilation rates

A

Increased PCO2, decreased pH and decreased PO2

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37
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors

A

Located in the aorta and the carotid arteries and monitor the PCO2, pH and PO2 of the blood

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38
Q

Central Chemoreceptors

A

Found in the medullary respiratory control center and monitor PCO2 and pH of the CSF

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39
Q

How do changes in ventilation rates affect the pH

A

An increase in PCO2 causes rapid effects on pH, resulting in a shift to mainting the equilibrium

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40
Q

What mechanical stimuli that affect ventilation rate

A

Physical stretching of the lungs and irritants

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41
Q

Bronchoconstriction

A

Contraction of smooth muscles sound in the walls of the bronchi and larger bronchioles

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42
Q

What happens when irritants enter the inner lining of the lung

A

Irritation stimulates irritant receptors and reflexive contraction of bronchial smooth muscles to prevent irritants from continuing to enter the passageways

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43
Q

Catabolic reactions

A

Reactions that break down molecules to supply energy

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44
Q

Anabolic reactions

A

Synthesis of macromolecules

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45
Q

GI lumen

A

Lines the inside of the gut and is continuous with the space outside the body

A compartment where the usable components of foodstuffs are extracted, while wastes are left to be excreted as feces

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46
Q

What kind of muscles are striated

A

Skeletal (voluntary) muscle and cardiac (heart) muscle

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47
Q

GI molitlity

A

Exhibits automaticity, its a functional syncytium, contains an enteric nervous system , hormonal input affects mobility, parasympathetic (relax) and sympathetic (contract) nervous system

48
Q

GI motility serves two purposes

A

(1) mixing of food by disordered contractions of GI smooth muscles that result in a churning motion
(2) movement of food down the GItract by an orderly form of contractions called peristalsis

49
Q

Types of GI secretions

A

Endocrine and exocrine

50
Q

Exocrine

A

Excrete their products into ducts that drain into the GI lumen

(Liver, gallbladder and pancreas)

51
Q

Endocrine

A

Ductles glands,secretion (hormones) are picked up by capillaries in the blood stream

52
Q

Salivary amylase

A

Ptyalin, hydrolyzes starch and breaks it into fragments

53
Q

What is found in saliva to assist in digestion

A

Lingual lipase (fat digestion) and lysozyme (attacks cell walls)

No digestion occurs in the mouth however

54
Q

Esophagus

A

Muscular tube behind the trachea which conveys food and drink from the pharynx to the stomach

55
Q

The stomachs three purposes

A

Partial digestion of food, regulated release of food into the small intestine and destruction of micro organisms

56
Q

Gastric pH

A

2; leads to the destruction of micro organisms, acid-catalyze hydrolysis of many dietary proteins and conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin

57
Q

Pepsin

A

Secreted in the inactive form (pepsinogen) and activated through autocleavage due to gastric pH

58
Q

Sphincter

A

Lower esophageal sphincter prevents reflux of chyme into the esophagus.

Pyloric sphincter prevents the passage of food from the stomach into the duodenum

59
Q

Gastrin

A

Hormones secreted by cells in the stomach wall known as G cells, it stimulates acid and pepsin secretion and gastric motility

60
Q

Small intestine is divided into 3 parts

A

Duodenum, jejunum and ileum

61
Q

Where does absorption begins and digestion ends

A

Absorption begins in the duodenum and continues through the small intestines. Digestion is completed in the duodenum and jejunum

62
Q

What features allow the small intestine to accomplish absorption

A

It’s large surface area resulting from length, villi and micro villa

63
Q

Intestinal villi’s important structures

A

Capillaries, absorb dietary monosaccharides and amino acids.

Lymphatic vessels called lacteals, which absorb dietary fats

64
Q

Two ducts that empty into the duodenum

A

Pancreatic duct (delivers the exocrine secretions of the pancreas) and

The common bile duct (delivers bile)

65
Q

Functions of bile

A

Vehicle for the disposal of waste products by the liver and digestion of fats

66
Q

Two duodenum ducts empty into what?

A

Sphincter of Oddi

67
Q

What is the enzyme secreted by the duodenal epithelial cells?

A

Enterokinase, activates the pancreatic zymogen trypsinogen to tripsin

68
Q

Brush border enzymes

A

Are not secreted, but do their work inside or on the surface of the brush border epithelial cells.

69
Q

What is the role of brush border enzymes?

A

To hydrolyze the smallest carbohydrates and proteins into monosaccharides and amino acids

70
Q

What are the three main duodenal hormones?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK), secretin and esterogastrone

71
Q

CCK role

A

Secreted in response to fats in the duodenum. Causes the pancreas to secret digestive enzyme, stimulates gallbladder contraction and decreases gastric motility

72
Q

Secretin role

A

Released in response to acid in the duodenum. Causes the pancreas to release large amounts of high-pH aqueous buffer (HCO3- in water)

73
Q

Estrogasterone

A

Decreases stomach emptying

74
Q

Colon (large intestine)

A

Role is to absorb water and minerals, and to form and store feces until the time of defication

75
Q

Cecum

A

First part of the colon.

Entrance of chyme into the cecumis controlled by the ileocecal valve.

76
Q

The appendix

A

Finger- like appendage of the cecum. Composed mostly of lymphatic tissue

77
Q

Rectum

A

Last portion of the colon.

78
Q

Anal sphincter

A

Controls defication.

Internal anal sphincter consists of smooth muscle, which is under autonomic control.

External anal sphincter consists of skeletal muscles and is under voluntary control

79
Q

Type of bacteria found in the colon

A

Facultative or obligate anaerobes.

Metabolize materials and give off gas as a waste product

80
Q

Importance of colonic bacteria

A

(1) presence in large numbers of normal bacterial helps keep dangerous bacterial from proliferation
(2) supply us with vitamin K, essential for blood clotting

81
Q

Enzymes in the exocrine pancreas

A

Pancreatic amylase, Pancreatic lipase, pancreatic pro teases and nucleases

82
Q

Pancreatic amylase

A

Hydrolyze polysaccharides to disaccharides

83
Q

Pancreatic lipase

A

Hydrolyze triglycerides at the surface of micelle

84
Q

Nuclease

A

Hydrolyze dietary DNA and RNA

85
Q

Pancreatic protease

A

Responsible for hydrolyzing polypeptides to di- and tripeptides

86
Q

Exocrine pancreas is controlled by the

A

Parasympathetic nervous system activation which increases pancreatic secretion. Sympathetic activation reduces it

87
Q

Endocrine Pancreas

A

Consists of small regions within the pancreas known as the “islets of Langerhans”

88
Q

Three types of cells in the islets

A

Alpha cells,beta cells and gamma cells

89
Q

Alpha cells in the islets

A

Secrete glucagon in response to low blood sugar

90
Q

Beta cells in the islets

A

Secret insulin in response to elevated blood sugar

91
Q

Gamma cells in the islets

A

Secrete somatostation which inhibits many digestive processes

92
Q

Trypsin

A

Hydrolyzes polypeptides (proteins) not prolysaccharides

93
Q

Hormones that can raise blood sugar

A

Glucagon, epinephrine and cortisol

94
Q

Secretory activity of the liver

A

Secreted bile. Bile emulsified large fat particles in the duodenum.

95
Q

Bile moves from the liver to

A

Either directly secreted into the duodenum or its stored for later use in the gallbladder

96
Q

How does the gallbladder release bile?

A

The gallbladder itself has no secretory activity. CCK and the parasympathetic nervous system stimulate contraction of the gallbladder wall

97
Q

Livers function

A

Extracts nutrients from the blood & monitors for what’s present and what’s missing

Ammonia (waste product of protein catabolism) is converted to urea which is excited in urine

Lipid metabolism, plasma protein creation and is the major center for drug and toxin detoxification in the body

98
Q

Fat-soluable vitamins

A

require bile acids for solubilization and absorption.

A,D,E,K

99
Q

Water soluable fats

A

Excreted in urine by the kidneys.

B1,B2,B3,B6,B12,C,Biotin and Floate

100
Q

Excretory and homeostatic roles of the kidney

A

Excretion of hydrophilic wastes, maintenance of constant solute concentration and constant pH, maintenance of constant fluid volume

101
Q

Homeostasis is accomplished in the kidneys by

A

Filtration, selective reabsoption and secretions (adds to filtrate) and concentration and dilution

102
Q

Two components of a nephron (the functional unit of the kidney)

A

(1) rounded region surrounding the capillaries where filtration takes place (capsule)
(2) Renal tube; coiled tube which receives filtrate from the capillaries in the capsule at one end and empties into a collecting duct at the other end

103
Q

What kind of substances are not filtered by the glomerular basement?

A

Substances which are too large to pass, they remain in the blood in the glomerular capillaries and drain in to the efferent arterial (I.e. Blood cells and plasma proteins)

104
Q

Selective reabsoption

A

Substance that must return to the blood stream are extracted from the tubule, often via active transport and picked up by peritubular capillaries, which drain into venues tha lead to the renal vein

105
Q

What part of the tubule does most reabsoption occur?

A

The part nearest Bowman’s capsule called the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

But also in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

106
Q

Reabsoption in the PCT

A

Selective in that it chooses what to reabsorb but its not overly regulated since it reabsorbs “as much as possible” not a certain amount

107
Q

What two hormones affect concentration and dilution of the urine and how?

A

ADH: prevents dieresis by increasing water reabsoption in the distal nephron (without ADH the distal nephron is impermeable to water)

Aldosterone: when blood pressure is low this hormone is released and causes increased reabsoption of Na+ by the distal nephron. (Leads to increased thirst and water retention which raises blood pressure)

108
Q

Countercurrent multiplier

A

The loop of Helene is a countercurrent multiplier that makes the medulla very salty and that facilitates water reabsoption from the collecting duct. This is how the kidney is capable of making ruin with a much higher osmolarity than plasma

109
Q

Vasa Recta

A

Return to the bloodstream any water that is reabsorbed from the filtrate

110
Q

When there is a decrease in blood pressure…

A

The JG cells secrete an enzyme called renin into the bloodstream. Renin catalyze the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin I –> angiotensin II which is a vasoconstrictor that immediately raises blood pressure

111
Q

When plasma pH is too high

A

HCO3- is excreted in the urine (using carbonic anhydrase)

112
Q

When plasma pH is too low

A

H+ is excreted (using carbonic anhydrase)

113
Q

Renal adjustments to ph

A

Are slow and take several days to return plasma pH to normal after a disturbance

114
Q

Respiratory pH adjustments

A

Are rapid, taking effect in just minutes

115
Q

Calcitonin

A

C cells are located in the thyroid gland and are secreted when [Ca2+] is too high.

Removes it by deposition in bone, reduced absorption by the gut or excretion in the urine

116
Q

Parathomone

A

PTH effect is opposite of calcitonin

117
Q

EPO

A

Causes increased synthesis of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Release when oxygen content falls