Chapter 7-Show up Fitness Review for NASM CPT Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Typically Overactive Muscles:

OVERACTIVE muscles need to be SMR’d for 20-40 seconds, static stretched for 20-40 seconds

A
Gastrocnemius
Soleus
Adductors
Hamstring Complex
Psoas
Tensor fascia latae
Rectus femoris
Piriformis
Quadratus lumborum
Erector spinae
Pectoralis major/minor
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Upper trapezius
Levator scapulae
Sternocleidomastoid
Scalenes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Typically Underactive Muscles:

UNDERACTIVE muscles need to be strengthened using a 4-2-1 tempo.

A
Anterior tibialis
Posterior tibialis
Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
Gluteus maximus/medius
Transverses abdominus
Internal oblique
Multifidus
Serratus anterior
Middle/lower trapezius
Rhomboids
Teres minor
Infraspinatus
Posterior deltoid
Deep cervical flexors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neuromuscular Efficiency

A

The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonist, antagonist, and stabilizers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

**Relative Flexibility

A

The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Static Stretching

A

The process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Active- isolated stretch

A

The process of using agonists and synergist to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dynamic (functional) stretching

A

The active extension of a muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through a full available range of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Altered Reciprocal Inhibition

A

The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Synergistic Dominance

A

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Arthrokinetic Dysfunction

A

Altered forces at the joint that result in abnormal muscular activity and impaired neuromuscular communication at the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Autogenic Inhibition

A

Process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, provide an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles. Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides and inhibitory action to muscle spindles(located within the same muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cumulative Injury Cycle

A
Step 1. Tissue Trauma
Step 2. Inflammation
Step 3. Muscle Spasm
Step 4. Adhesions
Step 5. Altered Neuromuscular Control
Step 6. Muscle Imbalance
And Then the Vicious Cycle Repeats and Reinforces Itself.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Davis’s law

A

is used in anatomy and physiology to describe how soft tissue models along imposed demands. It is the corollary to Wolff’s law, which applies to osseous tissue.
It is a physiological principle stating that soft tissue heal according to the manner in which they are mechanically stressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Example Test Questions:
According to the integrated flexibility continuum, what kind of flexibility is static
stretching?

A

**A- Corrective
B- Active
C- Functional
D- Isometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Your clients head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment, which of the following
muscles would you want to static stretch for 20-40 seconds?

A

A- Deep Cervical Flexors
**B- Sternocleidomastoid
C- Lower Traps
D Rhomboids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the definition of the bodies tendency to seek the path of least resistance during
functional movement patterns?

A

A- Autogenic Inhibition
B- Synergist Dominance
C- Reciprocal Inhibition
**D- Relative Flexibility

17
Q

When excited, the ____________________________ stimulation provides an inhibitory
action to the _____________________, which is called __________________________.

A

**A- Golgi Tendon Organ, Muscle Spindle, Autogenic Inhibition
B- Golgi Tendon Organ, Muscle Spindle, Reciprocal Inhibition
C- Muscle Spindles, Golgi Tendon Organ, Autogenic Inhibition
D- Muscle Spindles, Golgi Tendon Organ, Reciprocal Inhibition

18
Q

A prisoner squat & single-leg squat touchdown are examples of what kind of stretches?

A

A- Corrective
B- Active
**C- Functional
D – Reactive

19
Q

Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?

A

Select one:

a. Relative flexibility
* *b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Myotatic stretch-reflex
d. Synergistic dominance

20
Q

Ryan is performing static stretching on a client’s calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?

A

Select one:

a. The client had a posterior pelvic tilt.
b. The client had an anterior pelvic tilt.
* *c. The client’s feet had turned out.
d. The client’s knees bowed out.

21
Q

In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client’s back leg should be in which of the following positions?

A

Select one:

a. Adducted 90°
b. Abducted 90°
* *c. Externally rotated
d. Internally rotated

22
Q

During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?

A

Select one:

  • *a. Two-leg floor bridge
    b. Back extension
    c. Reverse crunch
    d. Ball medicine pullover throw
23
Q

Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?

A

Select one:

a. Neuromuscular efficiency
b. Dynamic range of motion
c. Extensibility
* *d. Flexibility

24
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training?

A

Select one:

a. It decreases glucose tolerance.
b. It decreases high-density lipoproteins.
c. It decreases oxidative capacity of muscle.
* *d. It decreases resting heart rate.

25
Q

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
Select one:

A

Select one:

a. The entire inner thigh region
* *b. The groin region inside the upper thigh
c. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis
d. The short head of the biceps femoris

26
Q

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
Select one:

A

Select one:

a. Treadmills
* *b. Bicycles
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Group exercise classes

27
Q

Which of the following is a formula that determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?

A

Select one:

  • *a. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
    b. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
    c. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
    d. VO2 Reserve Method
28
Q

The active supine biceps femoris stretch uses which physiological principle to increase flexibility?

A

Select one:

a. Synergistic dominance
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
* *c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Autogenic inhibition

29
Q

What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?

A

Select one:

a. Ballistic stretching
b. Elastic stretching
* *c. Static stretching
d. Active stretching

30
Q

Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?

A

Select one:

a. Davis’s law
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Wolff’s law
* *d. Reciprocal inhibition

31
Q

Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?

A

Select one:

a. Dumbbell snatch
b. Supported dumbbell row
c. Prone iso-abs
* *d. Reverse crunch