Chapter 5 Protecting Security of Assets Flashcards

1
Q

Sensitive data

A

is any information that isn’t public or unclassified. It can include confidential, proprietary, protected, or any other type of data that an organization needs to protect due to its value to the organization, or to comply with existing laws and regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Personally identifiable information (PII)

A

(1) any information that can be used to distinguish or trace an individual’s identity, such as name, social security number, date and place of birth, mother’s maiden name, or biometric records; and
(2) any other information that is linked or linkable to an individual, such as medical, educational, financial, and employment information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Proprietary Data

A

refers to any data that helps an organization maintain a competitive edge. It could be software code it developed, technical plans for products, internal processes, intellectual property, or trade secrets. If competitors are able to access the proprietary data, it can seriously affect the primary mission of an organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

data classification

A

identifies the value of the data to the organization and is critical to protect data confidentiality and integrity. The policy identifies classification labels used within the organization. It also identifies how data owners can determine the proper classification and how personnel should protect data based on its classification.

As an example, government data classifications include top secret, secret, confidential, and unclassified. Anything above unclassified is sensitive data, but clearly, these have different values. The U.S. government provides clear definitions for these classifications. As you read them, note that the wording of each definition is close except for a few key words. Top secret uses the phrase “exceptionally grave damage,” secret uses the phrase “serious damage,” and confidential uses “damage.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Top Secret

A

“applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Secret

A

“applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Confidential

A

“applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security that the original classification authority is able to identify or describe.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Unclassified

A

refers to any data that doesn’t meet one of the descriptions for top secret, secret, or confidential data. Within the United States, unclassified data is available to anyone, though it often requires individuals to request the information using procedures identified in the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

for official use only (FOUO) and sensitive but unclassified (SBU)

A

Documents with these designations have strict controls limiting their distribution. As an example, the U.S. Internal Revenue Service (IRS) uses SBU for individual tax records, limiting access to these records.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Confidential or Proprietary

A

label typically refers to the highest level of classified data. In this context, a data breach would cause exceptionally grave damage to the mission of the organization. As an example, attackers have repeatedly attacked Sony, stealing more than 100 terabytes of data including full-length versions of unreleased movies. These quickly showed up on file-sharing sites and security experts estimate that people downloaded these movies up to a million times. With pirated versions of the movies available, many people skipped seeing them when Sony ultimately released them. This directly affected their bottom line. The movies were proprietary and the organization might have considered it as exceptionally grave damage. In retrospect, they may choose to label movies as confidential or proprietary and use the strongest access controls to protect them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Private

A

refers to data that should stay private within the organization but doesn’t meet the definition of confidential or proprietary data. In this context, a data breach would cause serious damage to the mission of the organization. Many organizations label PII and PHI data as private. It’s also common to label internal employee data and some financial data as private. As an example, the payroll department of a company would have access to payroll data, but this data is not available to regular employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sensitive

A

is similar to confidential data. In this context, a data breach would cause damage to the mission of the organization. As an example, information technology (IT) personnel within an organization might have extensive data about the internal network including the layout, devices, operating systems, software, Internet Protocol (IP) addresses, and more. If attackers have easy access to this data, it makes it much easier for them to launch attacks. Management may decide they don’t want this information available to the public, so they might label it as sensitive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Public

A

data is similar to unclassified data. It includes information posted in websites, brochures, or any other public source. Although an organization doesn’t protect the confidentiality of public data, it does take steps to protect its integrity. For example, anyone can view public data posted on a website. However, an organization doesn’t want attackers to modify this data so it takes steps to protect it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Asset classifications

A

should match the data classifications. In other words, if a computer is processing top secret data, the computer should also be classified as a top secret asset. Similarly, if media such as internal or external drives holds top secret data, the media should also be classified as top secret.

It is common to use clear marking on the hardware assets so that personnel are reminded of data that can be processed or stored on the asset. For example, if a computer is used to process top secret data, the computer and the monitor will have clear and prominent labels reminding users of the classification of data that can be processed on the computer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Confidential/Proprietary

highest level of protection for any data

A

Email and attachments must be encrypted with AES 256.

Email and attachments remain encrypted except when viewed.

Email can only be sent to recipients within the organization.

Email can only be opened and viewed by recipients (forwarded emails cannot be opened).

Attachments can be opened and viewed, but not saved.

Email content cannot be copied and pasted into other documents.

Email cannot be printed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Private

examples include PII and PHI

A

Email and attachments must be encrypted with AES 256.

Email and attachments remain encrypted except when viewed.

Can only be sent to recipients within the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sensitive

lowest level of protection for classified data

A

Email and attachments must be encrypted with AES 256.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Public

A

Email and attachments can be sent in cleartext.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Data at Rest

A

is any data stored on media such as system hard drives, external USB drives, storage area networks (SANs), and backup tapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Data in Transit

A

(sometimes called data in motion) is any data transmitted over a network. This includes data transmitted over an internal network using wired or wireless methods and data transmitted over public networks such as the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Data in Use

A

refers to data in memory or temporary storage buffers, while an application is using it. Because an application can’t process encrypted data, it must decrypt it in memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

data breach

A

is any event in which an unauthorized entity can view or access sensitive data. If you pay attention to the news, you probably hear about data breaches quite often. Big breaches such as the Equifax breach of 2017 hit the mainstream news. Equifax reported that attackers stole personal data, including Social Security numbers, names, addresses, and birthdates, of approximately 143 million Americans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Handling Sensitive Information and Assets

A

refers to the secure transportation of media through its lifetime. Personnel handle data differently based on its value and classification, and as you’d expect, highly classified information needs much greater protection. Even though this is common sense, people still make mistakes. Many times, people get accustomed to handling sensitive information and become lackadaisical with protecting it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Storing Sensitive Data

A

Sensitive data should be stored in such a way that it is protected against any type of loss. The obvious protection is encryption. AES 256 provides strong encryption and there are many applications available to encrypt data with AES 256. Additionally, many operating systems include built-in capabilities to encrypt data at both the file level and the disk level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Destroying Sensitive Data

A

When an organization no longer needs sensitive data, personnel should destroy it. Proper destruction ensures that it cannot fall into the wrong hands and result in unauthorized disclosure. Highly classified data requires different steps to destroy it than data classified at a lower level. An organization’s security policy or data policy should define the acceptable methods of destroying data based on the data’s classification. For example, an organization may require the complete destruction of media holding highly classified data, but allow personnel to use software tools to overwrite data files classified at a lower level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

NIST SP 800-88r1, “Guidelines for Media Sanitization,”

A

provides comprehensive details on different sanitization methods. Sanitization methods (such as clearing, purging, and destroying) ensure that data cannot be recovered by any means. When a computer is disposed of, sanitization includes ensuring that all nonvolatile memory has been removed or destroyed; the system doesn’t have compact discs (CDs)/digital versatile discs (DVDs) in any drive; and internal drives (hard drives and solid-state drives (SSDs) have been sanitized, removed, and/or destroyed. Sanitization can refer to the destruction of media or using a trusted method to purge classified data from the media without destroying it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Eliminating Data Remanence

A

is the data that remains on media after the data was supposedly erased. It typically refers to data on a hard drive as residual magnetic flux. Using system tools to delete data generally leaves much of the data remaining on the media, and widely available tools can easily undelete it. Even when you use sophisticated tools to overwrite the media, traces of the original data may remain as less perceptible magnetic fields. This is similar to a ghost image that can remain on some TV and computer monitors if the same data is displayed for long periods of time. Forensics experts and attackers have tools they can use to retrieve this data even after it has been supposedly overwritten.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

degausser

A

generates a heavy magnetic field, which realigns the magnetic fields in magnetic media such as traditional hard drives, magnetic tape, and floppy disk drives. Degaussers using power will reliably rewrite these magnetic fields and remove data remanence. However, they are only effective on magnetic media.

In contrast, SSDs use integrated circuitry instead of magnetic flux on spinning platters. Because of this, degaussing SSDs won’t remove data. However, even when using other methods to remove data from SSDs, data remnants often remain.Technicians commonly use degaussing methods to remove data from magnetic tapes with the goal of returning the tape to its original state. It is possible to degauss hard disks, but we don’t recommend it. Degaussing a hard disk will normally destroy the electronics used to access the data. However, you won’t have any assurance that all of the data on the disk has actually been destroyed. Someone could open the drive in a clean room and install the platters on a different drive to read the data. Degaussing does not affect optical CDs, DVDs, or SSDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Erasing

A

media is simply performing a delete operation against a file, a selection of files, or the entire media. In most cases, the deletion or removal process removes only the directory or catalog link to the data. The actual data remains on the drive. As new files are written to the media, the system eventually overwrites the erased data, but depending on the size of the drive, how much free space it has, and several other factors, the data may not be overwritten for months. Anyone can typically retrieve the data using widely available undelete tools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Clearing, or overwriting

A

is a process of preparing media for reuse and ensuring that the cleared data cannot be recovered using traditional recovery tools. When media is cleared, unclassified data is written over all addressable locations on the media. One method writes a single character, or a specific bit pattern, over the entire media. A more thorough method writes a single character over the entire media, writes the character’s complement over the entire media, and finishes by writing random bits over the entire media. It repeats this in three separate passes, as shown in Figure 5.2. Although this sounds like the original data is lost forever, it is sometimes possible to retrieve some of the original data using sophisticated laboratory or forensics techniques. Additionally, some types of data storage don’t respond well to clearing techniques. For example, spare sectors on hard drives, sectors labeled as “bad,” and areas on many modern SSDs are not necessarily cleared and may still retain data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Purging

A

is a more intense form of clearing that prepares media for reuse in less secure environments. It provides a level of assurance that the original data is not recoverable using any known methods. A purging process will repeat the clearing process multiple times and may combine it with another method such as degaussing to completely remove the data. Even though purging is intended to remove all data remnants, it isn’t always trusted. For example, the U.S. government doesn’t consider any purging method acceptable to purge top secret data. Media labeled top secret will always remain top secret until it is destroyed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Destruction

A

is the final stage in the lifecycle of media and is the most secure method of sanitizing media. When destroying media it’s important to ensure that the media cannot be reused or repaired and that data cannot be extracted from the destroyed media. Methods of destruction include incineration, crushing, shredding, disintegration, and dissolving using caustic or acidic chemicals. Some organizations remove the platters in highly classified disk drives and destroy them separately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Declassification

A

involves any process that purges media or a system in preparation for reuse in an unclassified environment. Sanitization methods can be used to prepare media for declassification, but often the efforts required to securely declassify media are significantly greater than the cost of new media for a less secure environment. Additionally, even though purged data is not recoverable using any known methods, there is a remote possibility that an unknown method is available. Instead of taking the risk, many organizations choose not to declassify any media and instead destroy it when it is no longer needed.

34
Q

Ensuring Appropriate Asset Retention

A

apply to data or records, media holding sensitive data, systems that process sensitive data, and personnel who have access to sensitive data. Record retention and media retention is the most important element of asset retention.

Record retention involves retaining and maintaining important information as long as it is needed and destroying it when it is no longer needed. An organization’s security policy or data policy typically identifies retention timeframes. Some laws and regulations dictate the length of time that an organization should retain data, such as three years, seven years, or even indefinitely. Organizations have the responsibility of identifying laws and regulations that apply and complying with them. However, even in the absence of external requirements, an organization should still identify how long to retain data.

35
Q

Symmetric encryption

A

uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data. In other words, if an algorithm encrypted data with a key of 123, it would decrypt it with the same key of 123. Symmetric algorithms don’t use the same key for different data. For example, if it encrypted one set of data using a key of 123, it might encrypt the next set of data with a key of 456. The important point here is that a file encrypted using a key of 123 can only be decrypted using the same key of 123. In practice, the key size is much larger. For example, AES uses key sizes of 128 bits or 192 bits and AES 256 uses a key size of 256 bits.

36
Q

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

A

is one of the most popular symmetric encryption algorithms. NIST selected it as a standard replacement for the older Data Encryption Standard (DES) in 2001. Since then, developers have steadily been implementing AES into many other algorithms and protocols. For example, Microsoft’s BitLocker (a full disk encryption application used with a Trusted Platform Module) uses AES. The Microsoft Encrypting File System (EFS) uses AES for file and folder encryption. AES supports key sizes of 128 bits, 192 bits, and 256 bits, and the U.S. government has approved its use to protect classified data up to top secret. Larger key sizes add additional security, making it more difficult for unauthorized personnel to decrypt the data.

37
Q

Triple DES

A

(or 3DES) as a possible replacement for DES. The first implementation used 56-bit keys but newer implementations use 112-bit or 168-bit keys. Larger keys provide a higher level of security. Triple DES is used in some implementations of the MasterCard, Visa (EMV), and Europay standard for smart payment cards. These smart cards include a chip and require users to enter a personal identification number (PIN) when making a purchase. The combination of a PIN and 3DES (or another secure algorithm) provides an added layer of authentication that isn’t available without the PIN.

38
Q

Blowfish

A

Security expert Bruce Schneier developed Blowfish as a possible alternative to DES. It can use key sizes of 32 bits to 448 bits and is a strong encryption protocol. Linux systems use bcrypt to encrypt passwords, and bcrypt is based on Blowfish. Bcrypt adds 128 additional bits as a salt to protect against rainbow table attacks.

39
Q

Protecting Data with Transport Encryption

A

Transport encryption methods encrypt data before it is transmitted, providing protection of data in transit. The primary risk of sending unencrypted data over a network is a sniffing attack. Attackers can use a sniffer or protocol analyzer to capture traffic sent over a network. The sniffer allows attackers to read all the data sent in cleartext. However, attackers are unable to read data encrypted with a strong encryption protocol.

40
Q

DATA OWNERS

A

is the person who has ultimate organizational responsibility for data. The owner is typically the chief operating officer (CEO), president, or a department head (DH). Data owners identify the classification of data and ensure that it is labeled properly. They also ensure that it has adequate security controls based on the classification and the organization’s security policy requirements. Owners may be liable for negligence if they fail to perform due diligence in establishing and enforcing security policies to protect and sustain sensitive data.

41
Q

NIST SP 800-18 outlines the following responsibilities for the information owner, which can be interpreted the same as the data owner. “rules of behavior,” which is effectively the same as an acceptable use policy (AUP

A

Establishes the rules for appropriate use and protection of the subject data/information (rules of behavior)
Provides input to information system owners regarding the security requirements and security controls for the information system(s) where the information resides
Decides who has access to the information system and with what types of privileges or access rights
Assists in the identification and assessment of the common security controls where the information resides.

42
Q

ASSET OWNERS
The asset owner (or system owner) is the person who owns the asset or system that processes sensitive data. NIST SP 800-18 outlines the following responsibilities for the system owner:

A

Develops a system security plan in coordination with information owners, the system administrator, and functional end users
Maintains the system security plan and ensures that the system is deployed and operated according to the agreed-upon security requirements
Ensures that system users and support personnel receive appropriate security training, such as instruction on rules of behavior (or an AUP)
Updates the system security plan whenever a significant change occurs
Assists in the identification, implementation, and assessment of the common security controls

43
Q

BUSINESS/MISSION OWNERS

A

The business/mission owner role is viewed differently in different organizations. NIST SP 800-18 refers to the business/mission owner as a program manager or an information system owner. As such, the responsibilities of the business/mission owner can overlap with the responsibilities of the system owner or be the same role.

Business owners might own processes that use systems managed by other entities. As an example, the sales department could be the business owner but the IT department and the software development department could be the system owners for systems used in sales processes. Imagine that the sales department focuses on online sales using an e-commerce website and the website accesses a back-end database server. As in the previous example, the IT department manages the web server as its system owner, and the software development department manages the database server as its system owner. Even though the sales department doesn’t own these systems, it does own the business processes that generate sales using these systems.

44
Q

DATA PROCESSORS

A

Generically, a data processor is any system used to process data. However, in the context of the GDPR, data processor has a more specific meaning. The GDPR defines a data processor as “a natural or legal person, public authority, agency, or other body, which processes personal data solely on behalf of the data controller.” In this context, the data controller is the person or entity that controls processing of the data.

45
Q

Notice

A

An organization must inform individuals about the purposes for which it collects and uses information about them.

46
Q

Choice

A

An organization must offer individuals the opportunity to opt out.

47
Q

Accountability for Onward Transfer

A

Organizations can only transfer data to other organizations that comply with the Notice and Choice principles.

48
Q

Security

A

Organizations must take reasonable precautions to protect personal data.

49
Q

Data Integrity and Purpose Limitation

A

Organizations should only collect data that is needed for processing purposes identified in the Notice principle. Organizations are also responsible for taking reasonable steps to ensure that personal data is accurate, complete, and current.

50
Q

Access

A

Individuals must have access to personal information an organization holds about them. Individuals must also have the ability to correct, amend, or delete information, when it is inaccurate.

51
Q

Recourse, Enforcement, and Liability

A

Organizations must implement mechanisms to ensure compliance with the principles and provide mechanisms to handle individual complaints.

52
Q

Pseudonymization

A

These artificial identifiers are pseudonyms. Two technical security controls that organizations can implement are encryption and pseudonymization. As mentioned previously, all sensitive data in transit and sensitive data at rest should be encrypted. When pseudonymization is performed effectively, it can result in less stringent requirements that would otherwise apply under the GDPR. refers to the process of using pseudonyms to represent other data. It can be done to prevent the data from directly identifying an entity, such as a person. As an example, consider a medical record held by a doctor’s office. Instead of including personal information such as the patient’s name, address, and phone number, it could just refer to the patient as Patient 23456 in the medical record. The doctor’s office still needs this personal information, and it could be held in another database linking it to the patient pseudonym (Patient 23456).

53
Q

Tokenization

A

is similar to pseudonymization. Pseudonymization uses pseudonyms to represent other data. Tokenization uses tokens to represent other data. Neither the pseudonym nor the token has any meaning or value outside the process that creates them and links them to the other data. Additionally, both methods can be reversed to make the data meaningful.

54
Q

Anonymization

A

If you don’t need the personal data, another option is to use anonymization. Anonymization is the process of removing all relevant data so that it is impossible to identify the original subject or person. If done effectively, the GDPR is no longer relevant for the anonymized data. However, it can be difficult to truly anonymize the data. Data inference techniques may be able to identify individuals, even if personal data is removed.

55
Q

ADMINISTRATORS

A

A data administrator is responsible for granting appropriate access to personnel. They don’t necessarily have full administrator rights and privileges, but they do have the ability to assign permissions. Administrators assign permissions based on the principles of least privilege and the need to know, granting users access to only what they need for their job.

56
Q

CUSTODIANS

A

Data owners often delegate day-to-day tasks to a custodian. A custodian helps protect the integrity and security of data by ensuring that it is properly stored and protected. For example, custodians would ensure that the data is backed up in accordance with a backup policy. If administrators have configured auditing on the data, custodians would also maintain these logs.

In practice, personnel within an IT department or system security administrators would typically be the custodians. They might be the same administrators responsible for assigning permissions to data.

57
Q

USERS

A

is any person who accesses data via a computing system to accomplish work tasks. Users have access to only the data they need to perform their work tasks. You can also think of users as employees or end users.

58
Q

California Online Privacy Protection Act (CalOPPA)

A

requires a conspicuously posted privacy policy for any commercial websites or online services that collect personal information on California residents. In effect, this potentially applies to any website in the world that collects personal information because if the website is accessible on the internet, any California residents can access it. Many people consider CalOPPA to be one of the most stringent laws in the United States, and U.S.-based organizations that follow the requirements of the California law typically meet the requirements in other locales. However, an organization still has an obligation to determine what laws apply to it and follow them.

59
Q

Security Baselines

A

Baselines provide a starting point and ensure a minimum security standard. One common baseline that organizations use is imaging. As an introduction, administrators configure a single system with desired settings, capture it as an image, and then deploy the image to other systems. This ensures that all the systems are deployed in a similar secure state, which helps to protect the privacy of data.

60
Q

Scoping

A

refers to reviewing a list of baseline security controls and selecting only those controls that apply to the IT system you’re trying to protect. For example, if a system doesn’t allow any two people to log on to it at the same time, there’s no need to apply a concurrent session control.

61
Q

Tailoring

A

refers to modifying the list of security controls within a baseline so that they align with the mission of the organization. For example, an organization might decide that a set of baseline controls applies perfectly to computers in their main location, but some controls aren’t appropriate or feasible in a remote office location. In this situation, the organization can select compensating security controls to tailor the baseline to the remote location.

62
Q

Which one of the following identifies the primary purpose of information classification processes?

Define the requirements for protecting sensitive data.
Define the requirements for backing up data.
Define the requirements for storing data.
Define the requirements for transmitting data.

A

A. A primary purpose of information classification processes is to identify security classifications for sensitive data and define the requirements to protect sensitive data. Information classification processes will typically include requirements to protect sensitive data at rest (in backups and stored on media), but not requirements for backing up and storing all data. Similarly, information classification processes will typically include requirements to protect sensitive data in transit but not necessarily all data in transit.

63
Q

When determining the classification of data, which one of the following is the most important consideration?

Processing system
Value
Storage media
Accessibility

A

B. Data is classified based on its value to the organization. In some cases, it is classified based on the potential negative impact if unauthorized personnel can access it. It is not classified based on the processing system, but the processing system is classified based on the data it processes. Similarly, the storage media is classified based on the data classification, but the data is not classified based on where it is stored. Accessibility is affected by the classification, but the accessibility does not determine the classification. Personnel implement controls to limit accessibility of sensitive data.

64
Q

Which of the following answers would not be included as sensitive data?

Personally identifiable information (PII)
Protected health information (PHI)
Proprietary data
Data posted on a website

A

D. Data posted on a website is not sensitive, but PII, PHI, and proprietary data are all sensitive data.

65
Q

What is the most important aspect of marking media?

Date labeling
Content description
Electronic labeling
Classification

A

D. Classification is the most important aspect of marking media because it clearly identifies the value of the media and users know how to protect it based on the classification. Including information such as the date and a description of the content isn’t as important as marking the classification. Electronic labels or marks can be used, but they are applied to the files, not the media, and when they are used, it is still important to mark the media.

66
Q

Which would an administrator do to classified media before reusing it in a less secure environment?

Erasing
Clearing
Purging
Overwriting

A

C. Purging media removes all data by writing over existing data multiple times to ensure that the data is not recoverable using any known methods. Purged media can then be reused in less secure environments. Erasing the media performs a delete, but the data remains and can easily be restored. Clearing, or overwriting, writes unclassified data over existing data, but some sophisticated forensics techniques may be able to recover the original data, so this method should not be used to reduce the classification of media.

67
Q

Which of the following statements correctly identifies a problem with sanitization methods?

Methods are not available to remove data ensuring that unauthorized personnel cannot retrieve data.
Even fully incinerated media can offer extractable data.
Personnel can perform sanitization steps improperly.
Stored data is physically etched into the media.

A

C. Sanitization can be unreliable because personnel can perform the purging, degaussing, or other processes improperly. When done properly, purged data is not recoverable using any known methods. Data cannot be retrieved from incinerated, or burned, media. Data is not physically etched into the media.

68
Q

Which of the following choices is the most reliable method of destroying data on a solid state drive (SSD)?

Erasing
Degaussing
Deleting
Purging

A

D. Purging is the most reliable method of the given choices. Purging overwrites the media with random bits multiple times and includes additional steps to ensure that data is removed. While not an available answer choice, destruction of the drive is a more reliable method. Erasing or deleting processes rarely remove the data from media, but instead mark it for deletion. Solid state drives (SSDs) do not have magnetic flux, so degaussing an SSD doesn’t destroy data.

69
Q

Which of the following is the most secure method of deleting data on a DVD?

Formatting
Deleting
Destruction
Degaussing

A

C. Physical destruction is the most secure method of deleting data on optical media such as a DVD. Formatting and deleting processes rarely remove the data from any media. DVDs do not have magnetic flux, so degaussing a DVD doesn’t destroy data.

70
Q

Which of the following does not erase data?

Clearing
Purging
Overwriting
Remanence

A

D. Data remanence refers to data remnants that remain on a hard drive as residual magnetic flux. Clearing, purging, and overwriting are valid methods of erasing data.

71
Q

Which one of the following is based on Blowfish and helps protect against rainbow table attacks?

3DES
AES
Bcrypt
SCP

A

C. Linux systems use bcrypt to encrypt passwords, and bcrypt is based on Blowfish. Bcrypt adds 128 additional bits as a salt to protect against rainbow table attacks. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Triple DES (or 3DES) are separate symmetric encryption protocols, and neither one is based on Blowfish, or directly related to protecting against rainbow table attacks. Secure Copy (SCP) uses Secure Shell (SSH) to encrypt data transmitted over a network.

72
Q

Which one of the following would administrators use to connect to a remote server securely for administration?

Telnet
Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)
Secure Copy (SCP)
Secure Shell (SSH)

A

D. SSH is a secure method of connecting to remote servers over a network because it encrypts data transmitted over a network. In contrast, Telnet transmits data in cleartext. SFTP and SCP are good methods for transmitting sensitive data over a network but not for administration purposes.

73
Q

Which one of the following tasks would a custodian most likely perform?

Access the data
Classify the data
Assign permissions to the data
Back up data

A

D. A data custodian performs day to day tasks to protect the integrity and security of data, and this includes backing it up. Users access the data. Owners classify the data. Administrators assign permissions to the data.

74
Q

Which one of the following data roles is most likely to assign permissions to grant users access to data?

Administrator
Custodian
Owner
User

A

A. The administrator assigns permissions based on the principles of least privilege and need to know. A custodian protects the integrity and security of the data. Owners have ultimate responsibility for the data and ensure that it is classified properly, and owners provide guidance to administrators on who can have access, but owners do not assign permissions. Users simply access the data.

75
Q

Which of the following best defines “rules of behavior” established by a data owner?

Ensuring that users are granted access to only what they need
Determining who has access to a system
Identifying appropriate use and protection of data
Applying security controls to a system

A

C. The rules of behavior identify the rules for appropriate use and protection of data. Least privilege ensures that users are granted access to only what they need. A data owner determines who has access to a system, but that is not rules of behavior. Rules of behavior apply to users, not systems or security controls.

76
Q

Within the context of the EU GDPR, what is a data processor?

The entity that processes personal data on behalf of the data controller
The entity that controls processing of data
The computing system that processes data
The network that processes data

A

A. The European Union (EU) Global Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) defines a data processor as “a natural or legal person, public authority, agency, or other body, which processes personal data solely on behalf of the data controller.” The data controller is the entity that controls processing of the data and directs the data processor. Within the context of the EU GDPR, the data processor is not a computing system or network.

77
Q

Your organization has a large database of customer data. To comply with the EU GDPR, administrators plan to use pseudonymization. Which of the following best describes pseudonymization?

The process of replacing some data with another identifier
The process of removing all personal data
The process of encrypting data
The process of storing data

A

A. Pseudonymization is the process of replacing some data with an identifier, such as a pseudonym. This makes it more difficult to identify an individual from the data. Removing personal data without using an identifier is closer to anonymization. Encrypting data is a logical alternative to pseudonymization because it makes it difficult to view the data. Data should be stored in such a way that it is protected against any type of loss, but this is unrelated to pseudonymization.

78
Q

An organization is implementing a preselected baseline of security controls, but finds that some of the controls aren’t relevant to their needs. What should they do?

Implement all the controls anyway.
Identify another baseline.
Re-create a baseline.
Tailor the baseline to their needs.

A

D. Scoping and tailoring processes allow an organization to tailor security baselines to its needs. There is no need to implement security controls that do not apply, and it is not necessary to identify or re-create a different baseline.

79
Q

An organization has a datacenter that processes highly sensitive information and is staffed 24 hours a day. The datacenter includes email servers, and administrators purge email older than six months to comply with the organization’s security policy. Access to the datacenter is controlled, and all systems that process sensitive information are marked. Administrators routinely back up data processed in the datacenter. They keep a copy of the backups on site and send an unmarked copy to one of the company warehouses. Warehouse workers organize the media by date, and they have backups from the last 20 years. Employees work at the warehouse during the day and lock it when they leave at night and over the weekends. Recently a theft at the warehouse resulted in the loss of all of the offsite backup tapes. Later, copies of their data, including sensitive emails from years ago, began appearing on internet sites, exposing the organization’s internal sensitive data.

Of the following choices, what would have prevented this loss without sacrificing security?

Mark the media kept offsite.
Don’t store data offsite.
Destroy the backups offsite.
Use a secure offsite storage facility.

A

D. Backup media should be protected with the same level of protection afforded the data it contains, and using a secure offsite storage facility would ensure this. The media should be marked, but that won’t protect it if it is stored in an unstaffed warehouse. A copy of backups should be stored offsite to ensure availability if a catastrophe affects the primary location. If copies of data are not stored offsite, or offsite backups are destroyed, security is sacrificed by risking availability.

80
Q

An organization has a datacenter that processes highly sensitive information and is staffed 24 hours a day. The datacenter includes email servers, and administrators purge email older than six months to comply with the organization’s security policy. Access to the datacenter is controlled, and all systems that process sensitive information are marked. Administrators routinely back up data processed in the datacenter. They keep a copy of the backups on site and send an unmarked copy to one of the company warehouses. Warehouse workers organize the media by date, and they have backups from the last 20 years. Employees work at the warehouse during the day and lock it when they leave at night and over the weekends. Recently a theft at the warehouse resulted in the loss of all of the offsite backup tapes. Later, copies of their data, including sensitive emails from years ago, began appearing on internet sites, exposing the organization’s internal sensitive data.
Which of the following administrator actions might have prevented this incident?

Mark the tapes before sending them to the warehouse.
Purge the tapes before backing up data to them.
Degauss the tapes before backing up data to them.
Add the tapes to an asset management database.

A

A. If the tapes were marked before they left the datacenter, employees would recognize their value and it is more likely someone would challenge their storage in an unstaffed warehouse. Purging or degaussing the tapes before using them will erase previously held data but won’t help if sensitive information is backed up to the tapes after they are purged or degaussed. Adding the tapes to an asset management database will help track them but wouldn’t prevent this incident.

81
Q

An organization has a datacenter that processes highly sensitive information and is staffed 24 hours a day. The datacenter includes email servers, and administrators purge email older than six months to comply with the organization’s security policy. Access to the datacenter is controlled, and all systems that process sensitive information are marked. Administrators routinely back up data processed in the datacenter. They keep a copy of the backups on site and send an unmarked copy to one of the company warehouses. Warehouse workers organize the media by date, and they have backups from the last 20 years. Employees work at the warehouse during the day and lock it when they leave at night and over the weekends. Recently a theft at the warehouse resulted in the loss of all of the offsite backup tapes. Later, copies of their data, including sensitive emails from years ago, began appearing on internet sites, exposing the organization’s internal sensitive data.
Of the following choices, what policy was not followed regarding the backup media?

Media destruction
Record retention
Configuration management
Versioning

A

B. Personnel did not follow the record retention policy. The scenario states that administrators purge onsite email older than six months to comply with the organization’s security policy, but offsite backups included backups for the last 20 years. Personnel should follow media destruction policies when the organization no longer needs the media, but the issue here is the data on the tapes. Configuration management ensures that systems are configured correctly using a baseline, but this does not apply to backup media. Versioning is applied to applications, not backup tapes.