Chapter 5 - Flight Ops - General Operations Flashcards

1
Q

How long do you have to fill in an Event Report?

A

48 hrs

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2
Q

When an ATC facility requests the reason for emergency authority being exercised, how much time does the PIC have to submit this report?

A

48 hours

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3
Q

How long does the DO have before he/she must submit a report to the FAA following an exercise of emergency authority by the PIC?

A

10 days

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4
Q

You’re flying along and you’re informed Ukrainian airspace is completely closed required a massive re-route. As an FO what are your actions?

A
  • Inform the PIC
  • Inform the Flight Follower who will amend your ATC clearance on file
    *
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5
Q

You can’t depart before which time?

A

20 mins prior to scheduled departure time without approval from the FF

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6
Q

If you’re ready to go 30 minutes early do you need to request and early departure?

A

yes,

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7
Q

Aircraft security searches are required when?

A

All departures except at US military bases

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8
Q

How do pilots confirm the security search has been completed?

A

signing the EF-043 form before departure

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9
Q

Who else performs the security inspection?

A

FME or mechanic, GSC, or handling agent

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10
Q

Sterile Cockpit?

A

Critical phases of flight are defined as all ground operations involving taxi (as defined by the FARs), takeoff

and landing, and flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet (except cruise flight).

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11
Q

What other rules regarding critical phases of flight are there?

A

must not leave seat during critical phase of flight

must have headset on below 18,000’

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12
Q

For a FO with less than 100 hours on type, what are the restrictions?

A
  1. At special airports listed in the Special Airport Qualification; OpSpec C050 Flight Information Bulletin

(FIB) to this manual.

  1. The prevailing visibility in the latest weather report for the airport is at (or below) 3/4 mile.
  2. The RVR for the runway to be used is at (or below) 4,000 feet.
  3. The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane

performance.

  1. The braking action on the runway to be used is report to be less than “good”.
  2. The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.
  3. Wind shear is report in the vicinity of the airport.
  4. Any other condition in which the PIC determined it to be prudent to exercise the PIC’s prerogative.
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13
Q

Can you switch of the FDR or CVR?

A

CVR only for preserving data, FDR - no

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14
Q

When do you need to don the O2 masks?

A
  • cabin altitude above 10,000
  • one pilot leaves seat and a/c is above FL250
  • one pilot above FL410
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15
Q

What setting on the O2 masks do you use if above FL410?

A

Normal

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16
Q

After tuning ILSs, VORs, and NDBs what must you do?

A

verify they’re correctly identified

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17
Q

When given a “maintain visual separation with another aircraft” clearance, what is the pilot responsible for?

A

separation and wake turbulence separation

18
Q

During what sort of approach must the aural ID be monitored?

A

NDB

19
Q

You lose visual contact with the a/c you’ve been given “maintain visual separation” clearance with, what do you do?

A

advise ATC

20
Q

What is the restriction flying to an airport where they are unable to measure above 31.00 “ altimeter settings?

A

VFR only ops

21
Q

Who is responsible to ensure cargo is restrained?

A

PIC

22
Q

Supernumerary Briefing

A
23
Q

When do you need to remind supernumeraries to fasten their seatbelts?

A

taxi, takeoff, landing, turbulence

24
Q

What are the fuel requirements for B044 dispatch?

A

Need fuel for:

KA is authorized by OpSpec B044 to conduct planned rerelease en-route international flights planned

with enough fuel to:

  1. Fly to and land at the airport to which it is released;
  2. Thereafter, to fly for a period of 10% of the total time from the point of re-release to the airport to

which it is re-released;

  1. Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate specified in the release; and
  2. Thereafter, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 feet above the alternate airport under

standard temperature conditions.

25
Q

When do you call flight following for re-release?

A

2 hours prior to the re release point

26
Q

During B44 and B43 operations what deviations are you required to notify flight following?

A
  • 15 minutes
  • +/- 4000 ft
  • +/- 100 nm
27
Q

What windshear conditions require a go around?

A

15 knots indicated airspeed.

  1. 500 feet per minute vertical speed.
  2. 5% pitch attitude.
  3. 1 dot displacement from the glideslope.
  4. Abnormal thrust requirements to regain control.
28
Q

Coming in to land on an icy runway. When should you request a more “in to wind” runway?

A

crosswind greater than 15 kts

29
Q

When are cold temperature corrections made?

A
  • temperature below charted temp at US airports
  • below -30 at international airports
30
Q

During flight in IMC, or during the hours of darkness, and while NOT flying an instrument

approach procedure, descent rates should be limited to no more than:

A
  • Within 5,000 feet AGL - 2,000 feet per minute.
  • Within 2,000 feet AGL – 1,000 feet per minute
31
Q

What are max holding speeds in the US?

A

6000 and below = 200 kts

6001-14000 = 230 kts

+14000 =265 kts

32
Q

What are the max holding speeds for PANS OPS?

A

14,000 and below = 230 kts

14,000 - 20,000 = 240 kts

20,000 - 34,000 = 265 kts

above 34,000 =M0.83

33
Q

What does RNP 4 mean?

A

RNP-4 requires the aircraft be

navigated within four nautical miles of centerline 95% of the time with further airspace is protected to

ensure that the aircraft is ‘contained’ 99.99% of the time

34
Q

You get delayed and you’re now past the RAIM window on the flight plan. Do you need to do anything?

A

The PIC should verify the aircraft is capable of the RNP necessary prior to flight.

The PIC must contact the Flight Follower for a Flight Release amendment if the flight will depart outside the

RAIM validity window

35
Q

You receive “Check ANP”. What do you need to do?

A

The PIC must notify ATC of any loss of the RNAV capability, together with the proposed course of action. If unable to comply with the requirements of an RNAV procedure, the flight crew must advise ATC as soon as possible.

36
Q

ATC must be advised when the true airspeed varies from the true airspeed filed in the original flight plan by one of the following amounts:

A
  1. ± 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater (U.S.).
  2. ± 5 percent or more (ICAO).
37
Q

How do you turn on Pilot activated lighting?

A

appropriate frequency and key the mic 7 times for max intensity

38
Q

Publications required on board

A
39
Q

You get to the plan and find there is a SAFA inspection being carried out. What are your responsibilities?

A
  • comply with inspector’s requests as much as practical
  • Regardless of any findings by the inspection, the Captain is responsible to notify the Safety Department, as soon as possible, via Event Log and telephone
  • If the Inspector has written any maintenance-related items in this field, the Captain is required tocontact Maintenance Control prior to the next flight to coordinate any maintenance discrepancies entered in the Aircraft Flight Log (M-16).
40
Q

You’re given a hold. When can start slowing to holding speed?

A

within 3 min of entering the hold

41
Q

For Cat II approach the DA on the chart is not authorized. How do you determine your DA?

A

Use the Inner Marker as your minimums. Set the RA to “0 feet”. Go around if not visual at the IM

Where the use of the radio altimeter is not authorized to determine

reaching the DH, the DA is determined by the inner marker to determine 100’ HAT on a Standard CAT II

approach.