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Rick's EASA PPL - Air Law > Chapter 5 - Airspace > Flashcards

Chapter 5 - Airspace Flashcards

Airspace

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1
Q

How many FIRs does the UK have? What are they?

A

2
London FIR
Scottish FIR

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2
Q

What is the vertical range of the UK FIRs?

A

Surface to 19,500 feet

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3
Q

What is the airspace called above the FIRs? How else is this known in the UK?

A

Upper airspace

Upper Information Regions (UIRs)

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4
Q

What is the vertical extent of the UK UIRs?

A

19,500 feet to 66,000 feet

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5
Q

What are the two distinct categories of airspace?

A

Controlled airspace

Uncontrolled airspace

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6
Q

Which airspace categories are assigned to uncontrolled airspace in the UK?

A

F and G

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7
Q

What are the four broad classes of airspace to be found in the UK?

A

Control Zones (CTR)
Terminal Control Areas (TCA)
Control Areas (CTA)
Airways

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8
Q

Describe the purpose and limitations of Control Zones (CTRs)

A
  • Airspace around certain aerodromes in which ATC is provided to all flights
  • Ground level to a specified altitude/flight level
  • Minimum 5 nm either side of the centre of the airport, in the direction of the approach path
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9
Q

Describe the purpose of TCAs

How else can it be abbreviated?

A
  • A Control Area at the confluence of controlled airspace routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes
  • TMA (Terminal manoeuvring area)
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10
Q

Describe a Control Area (CTA)

A

A portion of airspace in which ATC is provided, and which extends upwards from a specified base altitude or flight level to an upper limit expressed as a flight level

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11
Q

Describe an Airway

A

A Control Area in the form of a corridor, delineated by radio nav aids
Each has a specific ID code
Extends 5nm each side of a straight line joining certain places

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12
Q

All airways are Class…

A

A

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13
Q

VFR operations in controlled airspace are usually confined to Class…because…

A

D and E
Class A= IFR only
Class B= Not used in UK
Class C= 19,500 feet upwards

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14
Q

SVFR is an authorisation to fly in…(subject to ATC clearance)

A

A Control Zone

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15
Q

What are the flight conditions specified for SVFR?

A
  • Clear of cloud
  • 1500m (800m for helicopters)
  • No more than 140kts IAS
  • Day only
  • Ground visibility of 1500m+ (800m+ for helicopters)
  • Cloud ceiling no less than 600ft
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16
Q

The UK also permits SVFR…

A

At night

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17
Q

Under what circumstances may a PPL holder cross an Airway?

A

By flying at right angles to the base of the airway where the base of the airway is described as a Flight Level
The Airway must not be entered

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18
Q

Under what circumstances may one penetrate an Airway in VMC?

A
  • By holding a valid IR
  • Filing a flight plan
  • Requesting a crossing clearance from at least 10 minutes away
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19
Q

When eligible, which other rules must be adhered to when crossing or entering an Airway?

A

They must be crossed using the shortest possible route

They must be entered while already at the required flight level

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20
Q

How else may uncontrolled UK airspace be known?

A

The open FIR/Class G airspace

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21
Q

What kinds of areas are included in the Open FIR?

A

MATZs
Radar Advisory Service Areas (RASAs)
ATZs

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22
Q

Which Air Traffic Services are available in Open FIR and what are their sub-divisions (if any)?

A 
Flight Information Service (FIS)
Radar Services (including Lower Airspace Radar Advisory Service/LARS)
- Traffic Service
- Deconfliction Service
ATZ/MATZ services
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23
Q

Who provides a FIS in the UK?

A

London Information or Scottish Information

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24
Q

What services are provided by a FIS?

A
  • Information and warnings on meteorological conditions
  • Changes of serviceability in navigational and approach aids
  • Condition of aerodrome facilities
  • Alerting services
  • Aircraft proximity warnings
  • Other pertinent safety advice
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25
Q

What Airspace classification are ATZs?

A

This is governed by the class of airspace in which they are located

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26
Q

What are the standard dimensions of an ATZ?

A
  • Ground level to 2,000 feet aal
  • 2nm radius from the centre of the longest runway if the runway is 1,850m or less
  • 2.5nm radius from the centre of the longest runway if the runway is greater than 1,850m in length
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27
Q

What is needed for a pilot to be allowed to fly in an ATZ?

A
  • Permission from ATC or…
  • Enough information from the AFIS unit to be enable flight within the zone to be made safely or…
  • Enough information from the A/G unit for safe flight
28
Q

What must an aircraft in an ATZ do?

A
  • Maintain a continuous watch on the appropriate frequency for aerodrome communications or keep a watch for visual instructions
  • Give position and height to the appropriate unit on entering and leaving the zone
  • Make any other standard calls or requested calls
29
Q

Where do the ATZ rules of flight apply?

A
  • Government aerodromes
  • Those with AFIS or ATC units
  • National licensed aerodromes with A/G units during hours of watch
30
Q

When do stricter than usual rules apply to an ATZ?

A

When in an airspace with more stringent restrictions

31
Q

Where can ATZ info be found?

A

AIP AD2, charts and flight guides

32
Q

What is a MATZ?

A

A Military Air Traffic Zone

It surrounds existing ATZs around military aerodromes

33
Q

What are the limitations of MATZs?

A
  • Surface to 3000 feet
  • 5nm radius
  • With stubs extending a further 5nm along final approach path, from 1,000ft to 3,000ft aal and a 4nm width
34
Q

While a MATZ is technically…it is strongly advised to enter under the control of the…

A

Non-regulated

MATZ ATC authority

35
Q

Which are the only controlled airspaces generally of concern to VFR pilots?

A

D and E

36
Q

What services are not available in Class G (Open FIR)?

A

FIS and Radar Services

37
Q

Where can one find information on flight restrictions and hazards?

A

UK AIP

Charts

38
Q

What are Prohibited/Restricted areas?

A

Airspace in which flight is prohibited/restricted

39
Q

What is a Danger Area?

A

Defined airspace in which activities dangerous to flight may occur

40
Q

Where may Danger Areas be found (for the purposes of planning)?

A 
UK AIP (ENR 5)
Charts
41
Q

What is the meaning of an area demarcated by a solid red circle?

A

A Danger Area (active within published hours)

42
Q

What is the meaning of an area demarcated by a pecked red circle?

A

A Danger Area which is inactive unless notified by NOTAM

43
Q

Where might one find pilotless aircraft? What do they look like?

A

In Danger Areas up to 60,000 feet

Orange or Red

44
Q

Under what circumstances may a tall structure be published in AIP ENR 5-4?

A

When 300 feet or above (agl)

45
Q

What are the laws for lighting tall structures?

A

They must be lit when 500 feet agl or above

46
Q

Where are Aerodrome Obstructions found?

A

AIP AD

ILS charts

47
Q

From what height may gliders be towed/launched?

A

2,000 feet agl or more

48
Q

What are the restrictions for Captive Balloons?

A

May be flown without notification
Up to 1,000 feet
Visibility of no less that 5km cloud separation of not less than 1,000 feet

49
Q

From which height may parachuting take place?

A

Up to FL150

50
Q

Where may parachuting take place?

A

Any licensed or Government aerodrome

51
Q

Under what conditions may a parachutist drop?

A

Clear of cloud
In sight of the surface
5km visibility

52
Q

What are the limitations for parascending?

A

Up to cloud base or base of airspace (whichever is lower)

Launch cables may be carried up to 2,000 feet agl

53
Q

Where may cable launching activities be published?

A

AIP ENR 5

1:500,000 charts

54
Q

What are the limitations for Hang-Gliding?

A

Up to cloud base or base of airspace (whichever is lower)

Launch cables may be carried up to 2,000 feet agl

55
Q

Where are areas of intense microlight activity published?

A

AIP ENR
Pooley’s Flight Guide
Charts

56
Q

What are the danger areas in Areas of Intense Aerial Activity (AIAAs)?

A

Up to 2,000 feet AGL, but mostly between 250 feet and 500 feet agl

57
Q

How are gas venting sites identified?

A

Either AIP ENR or on charts by a magenta circle

58
Q

What is the potential vertical danger limit of Small Arms Ranges?

A

500 ft agl

59
Q

Up to what height may Target Towing Trials take place?

A

10,000 feet

60
Q

What are the vertical limits for flying over bird hazards/sanctuaries?

A

Any listed effective altitude or…

1,500 feet agl

61
Q

Where can migration patterns and bird concentration areas be found?

A

AIP ENR 6

62
Q

Where might temporary bird warnings be published?

A

By aerodrome ATS units

As Temp Nav Warnings (TNW) when there are indications of imminent flocks/migrations

63
Q

What effect may High Intensity Radio Transmissions/Areas (HIRT/A) have on your flight?

A

They may cause radio interference

64
Q

Describe the airspace around a Royal Flight

A

Only conducted in controlled airspace where possible

When not possible, temporary controlled airspace is established along the route (CAS-T)

65
Q

Where is the best place to get info on Royal Flights?

A

On the corresponding freephone number

NOTAMs

66
Q

How do Royal Flights differ when flown on rotor as opposed to fixed wing?

A

There are no special ATC procedures put in place in this instance

Rick's EASA PPL - Air Law (7 decks)

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