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MED SURG 2 > Chapter 37 Care of pt w/ Hematologic Problems > Flashcards

Chapter 37 Care of pt w/ Hematologic Problems Flashcards

Exam 2

1
Q

anemia

A

a reduction in the number of red blood cells (RBCs), the amount of hemoglobin, or the hematocrit (percentage of packed RBCs per deciliter of blood).

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2
Q

apheresis

A

the withdrawal of whole blood and removal of some of the patient’s blood components followed by reinfusion of the plasma back into the patient

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3
Q

blast phase cells

A

immature white cells that are dividing rapidly

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4
Q

engraftment

A

the successful “take” of the stem cells transplanted into the recipient

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5
Q

erythrocytes

A

red blood cells (RBCs)

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6
Q

glottitis

A

a smooth, beefy-red tongue

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7
Q

Hemoglobin A (HbA)

A

normal adult hemoglobin with two normal A chains and two normal B chains

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8
Q

Hemoglobin F (HbF)

A

the main type of hemoglobin in the fetus, having two normal A chains and two normal gamma chains that bind oxygen more tightly than does hemoglobin A or S

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9
Q

Hemoglobin S (HbS)

A

the hemoglobin of sickle cell disease in which there are two normal A chains and two abnormal beta chains that fold poorly, causing the red blood cell to assume a sickle shape under low-oxygen conditions

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10
Q

Hemolytic

A

blood destroying

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11
Q

hypercellularity

A

cellular excess in the peripheral blood

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12
Q

indolent

A

slow growing or slow to progress

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13
Q

intrinsic factor

A

a substance normally secreted by the gastric mucosa that is needed for intestinal absorption of Vitamin B12

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14
Q

leukemia

A

blood cancer that results from a loss of normal cellular regulation, leading to uncontrolled production of immature WBCs (“blast” cells) in the bone marrow

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15
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells (WBCs)

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16
Q

leukopenia

A

reduction in the circulating number of white blood cells (WBCs)

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17
Q

lymphomas

A

cancers of the lymphoid cells and tissues with loss of cellular regulation and abnormal overgrowth of lymphocytes

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18
Q

malignant

A

cancerous

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19
Q

multiple myeloma (MM)

A

a white blood cell cancer of mature-B lymphocytes called plasma cells that secrete antibodies

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20
Q

nadir

A

the period after chemotherapy in which bone marrow suppression is the most severe

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21
Q

pancytopenia

A

a condition of low circulating numbers of all blood cell types

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22
Q

perfusion

A

adequate arterial blood flow through the tissues (peripheral perfusion) and blood that is pumped by the heart (central perfusion) to oxygenate body tissues

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23
Q

m

peripheral blood stem cells (PBSCs)

A

stem cells that have been released from the bone marrow and circulate within the peripheral blood

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24
Q

pernicious anemia

A

anemia resulting from failure to absorb Vitamin B12, caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor (a substance normally secreted by the gastric mucosa), which is needed for intestinal absorption of Vitamin B12

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25
Q

Philadelphia Chromosome

A

an abnormal chromosome often associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia caused by a translocation of the ABL gene from chromosome 9 onto the BCR gene of chromesome 22

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26
Q

Polycythemia Vera (PV)

A

one of the chronic myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPNs) in which there is loss of cellular regulation and excessive proliferation of specific groups of abnormal myeloid cells that have decreased function

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27
Q

SCD crisis

A

episodes of extensive cellular sickling that obstruct perfusion, causing tissue hypoxia and severe pain

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28
Q

Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)

A

a genetic disorder in which a mutation in the gene for the beta chains of hemoglobin causes chronic anemia, pain, disability, organ damage, increased risk for infection, and early death as a result of poor blood perfusion

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29
Q

Stomatitis

A

mouth sores

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30
Q

Teratogen

A

an agent that can cause birth defects

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31
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

a reduction in the number of circulating platelets from reduced platelet production

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32
Q

Thrombocytopenia Purpura

A

the destructive reduction of circulating platelets after normal platelets production

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33
Q

hematologic

A

of or relating to blood; the dx, treatment, and prevention of disease of the blood and bone marrow as well as the immunolgic, hemostatic (blood clotting) and vascular systems

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34
Q

What is the function of RBCs in the body?

A

they carry oxygen to tissue which helps with perfusion

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35
Q

RBC disorders are problems that…

A

impair production of RBCs (either too little or too much), impaired function (for instance with SCD not enough functional Hgb to carry enough O2), and/ or abnormal destruction of RBCs

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36
Q

Conditions that cause low blood oxygen/ sickling

A
  • hypoxia
  • dehydration
  • infection
  • venous stasis
  • pregnancy
  • alcohol consumption
  • high altitudes
  • low or high environmental or body temperatures
  • acidosis
  • strenuous exercise
  • emotional stress
  • anesthesia
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37
Q

is when red blood cells, which are usually round and flexible, become hard and shaped like a crescent or a “sickle”; this happens because of a change in the hemoglobin, the protein inside red blood cells that carries oxygen; a change in the hemoglobin causes RBCs to sickle

A

sickle cell disease

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38
Q

Cells that do not move through blood vessels easily

A

sickle-shaped cells

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39
Q

characteristics of sickled cells

A
  • become hard and shaped like a crescent moon or a “sickle”
  • don’t move through blood vessels easily
  • get stuck and block blood flow
  • break apart faster than normal cells
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40
Q

Sickled cells breaking apart and blocking blood flow leads to what?

A

leads to problems like pain, tiredness, and damage to organs because the body isn’t getting enough oxygen

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41
Q

A clumped masses of sickled RBCs block blood flow and perfusion is known as what?

A

vaso-occlusive event (VOE)

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42
Q

VOC

A

(sudden onset) weekly or even yearly, conditions causing local or systemic hypoxemia; can refer to the overall crisis involving any issues arising from the blockage of blood flow

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43
Q

VOE

A

results in impaired perfusion with long term effects to tissues and organs (organs most affected spleen, liver, heart, kidney, brain, joints, bones and retina); typically emphasizes the painful experience of sickle cell patients during an episode

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44
Q

VOE/ VOC

A

in practice- the terms are used interchangeably

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45
Q

:is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body

A

hemoglobin

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46
Q

when oxygen levels are low, HbS causes red blood cells to change shape from their normal round form to a rigid, sickle shape; these sickle-shaped cells do not flow well through blood vessels, leading to blockages and various complications

A

the sickling of red blood cells

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47
Q

genetic risks for SCD

A
  • family history
  • ethnicity
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48
Q

Who is at a higher risk of having children with SCD?

A

individuals with a famliy history of SCD or sickle cell trait

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49
Q

SCD is more prevalent in which populations?

A
  • individuals of African descent
  • people from the Mediterranean region
  • individuals from parts of the Middle East and India
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50
Q

SCD is inherited in what manner?

A

autosomal recessive

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51
Q

What is autosomal recessive?

A

a person must inherit 2 copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to have the disease

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52
Q

What is an individual considered if they inherit only one copy of the mutated gene but usually do not experience symptoms ?

A

a carrier (having sickle cell trait)

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53
Q

What is carrier status?

A

if both parents are carriers of the sickle cell trait, there is a 25% change with each pregnancy that their child will inherit two copies of the mutated gene and have sickle cell disease; a 50% chance that the child will be a carrier; and a 25% chance that the child will have normal hemoglobin

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54
Q

There are approximately how many people living with SCD in the US?

A

100,000

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55
Q

Repeated VOEs cause what to tissues and organs, especially the spleen?

A

long-term damage

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56
Q

the spleen acts as a what for your blood?

A

filter

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57
Q

what does spleen do?

A

filters the blood; recognizes & removes old, malformed, or damaged RBCs; fights infection

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58
Q

How does the spleen get damaged when filtering the blood?

A

the spleen will destroy sickled cells but in the process becomes damaged; it fights infection if it becomes damaged it can lead to infection/ risk of infection

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59
Q

What is the trigger for RBCs to sickle?

A

low oxygen conditions

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60
Q

Where does WBC formation occur?

A

in the soft tissue inside of your bones (bone marrow)

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61
Q

What are the 2 types of WBCs?

A
  1. T cells
  2. B cells
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62
Q

What is another name for white blood cells?

A

lymphocytes

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63
Q

What is another name for red blood cells?

A

erythroctye

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64
Q

where does t cells grow?

A

thymus

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65
Q

What does the T cells do?

A
  • wipe out infected or cancerous cells
  • direct the immune response by helping B lymphocytes to eliminate invading pathogens
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66
Q

What does the B cells do?

A

create antibodies

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67
Q

B cell aka?

A

B lymphocyte

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68
Q

T cell aka?

A

T lymphocyte

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69
Q

:a fist-sized organ found in the upper left side of your abdomen, next to your stomach and behind your left ribs; an important part of your immune system but you can survice without it; part of your lymphatic and immune system

A

spleen

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70
Q

What does the spleen do?

A
  • it fights any invading germs in the blood (the spleen contains infection-fighting white blood cells/ antibodies)
  • it controls the level of blood cells (WBC, RBC and platelets)
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71
Q

:small cells that form blood clots

A

platelets

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72
Q

What screens the blood and removes any old or damaged red blood cells?

A

spleen

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73
Q

If the spleen does not work properly, it may start to remove what? What can this lead to?

A

health blood cells; anemia- from a reduced number of RBCs; an increased risk of infection- from a reduced number of WBCs; bleeding or bruising - from a reduced number of platelets

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74
Q

Sickle Cell Disease Assessment Questions

A

History
* ask about previous crisises, what let to the crisis, severity, and usual management
* explore recent contact with ill people and activities to determine what caused the current crisis; ask about signs and symptoms of infection
* review all activities and events during the past 24hrs, including food and fluid intake, exposure to temperature extremes, drugs taken, exercise, trauma, stress, recent airplane travel, and use of alcohol, tobacco, or other recreational drugs
* ask about changes in sleep and rest patterns, ability to climb stairs, and any activity that induces shortness of breath
* assess the patient’s perceived energy level using a scale ranging from 0 to 10 (0=not tired with plenty of energy; 10= total exhaustion) to assess the degree of fatigue

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75
Q

What is the most common symptom of SCD crisis?

A

pain

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76
Q

Psychosocial Assessement: SCD

A
  • often cognitive and behavioral changes are early indications of cerebral hypoxia from poor perfusion
  • assess the patient and document mental status exam results
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77
Q

hematocrtit of patients with SCD

A

is low (between 20%- 30%) because of RBC shortened lifespan and destruction; the value decreases even more during a crisis or stress (aplastic crisis)

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78
Q

the reticulocyte count of SCD patients is

A

is high, indicating anemia of long duration

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79
Q

the total bilirubin of a SCD patient may be

A

high because damaged RBCs release iron and bilirubin

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80
Q
A
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81
Q

a SCD patient’s WBC count is

A

usually high, the elevation is r/t chronic inflammation caused by tissue hypoxia and ischemia

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82
Q

Why would patients with SCD have bone changes?

A

from a result of chronically stimulated marrow and low bone oxygen levels

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83
Q

Why may a SCD patient’s skull on an xray look like a “crew cut”?

A

bone surface cell destruction and new growth giving the skull a “crew cut” appearance

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84
Q

What may joints show on an xray of a SCD patient?

A

necrosis and destruction

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85
Q

What may ultrasonography, CT, positron emission tomography (PET), and a MRI show of a SCD patient?

A

soft-tissue and organ changes from poor perfusion and chronic inflammation

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86
Q

What do ECG changes show in a patient with SCD? specific ECG?

A

changes indicating cardiac infarcts and tissue damage; related to the area of the heart damaged

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87
Q

Echocardiograms may show what in SCD patients?

A

cardiomyopathy and decreased cardiac output (low ejection fraction)

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88
Q

Infection prevention in SCD patients:

A
  • spleen plays a big role in immune system
  • patient with scd at risk for infection
  • watch closely for sepsis
  • prophylactic antibodies often given
  • recommend annual flu shot and pneumonia vaccine
  • strict asepsis technique for all invasic procedures
  • HANDWASHING!
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89
Q

What procedure is helpful for SCD patients?

A

transfusions with RBCs; must use cautiously to avoid iron overload from repeated transfusions; will see transfusions used pretty commonly with goal being to avoid stroke

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90
Q

what labwork would you expect to see ordered for a SCD patient?

A
  • CBC
  • H&H
  • ABGs
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91
Q

H.O.P. (SCD interventions)

A
  • Hydration
  • Oxygenation
  • Pain relief
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92
Q

Pain management for patients with SCD experiencing a acute crisis usually starts with what?

A

at least 48 hrs of IV pain meds

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93
Q

What percentage of SCD patients suffer from an opioid addiction?

A

2%-5%

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94
Q

Concerns about substance abuse can lead to what?

A

inadequate pain treatment in SCD patients, as they are often treated as drug seekers
CHECK YOUR BIAS!

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95
Q

SCD patient: pain management

Morphine and Dilaudid often given as

A

via IV or PCA pump

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96
Q

Avoid what concerning pain meds with SCD patients?

A

PRN schedule

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97
Q

A SCD patient is usually dehydrated when they come in for a crisis…

A

hydration through both oral and IV routes

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98
Q

Hydration is important in SCD patients experiening a crisis, what should we encourage?

A

the patient to drink fluids- water, juices

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99
Q

Because the SCD patiet is dehydrated their blood is…

what fluids are given?

A

usually hypertonic; hypotonic fluids given IV (usually 1/2 NS infused, often initial bolus at 250mL/hr & then reduced to maintenance rate)

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100
Q

SCD

In a crisis, IV intake should be at least what rate?

A

200mL/ hr

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101
Q

Why is oxygen given to a SCD patient during a crisis?

A

a lack of oxygen is the main cause of sickling; ensure the oxygen is humidified

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102
Q

Complementary and altenative therapies: SCD patients/ crisis

A
  • keep the room warm
  • use distraction
  • relaxation techniques
  • positioning
  • warm soaks
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103
Q
A
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104
Q

chimerism

A

presence of donor cells

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105
Q

pain specific, sudden onset

A

VOC

106
Q

most specific to organs (spleen, liver, heart, kidney, brain,, joints, bones, and retina), causes damage, which in turn means a loss of function

A

VOE

107
Q

a reduction or deficiency of erythrocytes (RBCs) reflected as decreased Hct, Hgb, and RBCs

A

anemia

108
Q

basically a reduction in the number of RBCs (amount of hemoglobin & hematocrit)

A

anemia

109
Q

What is clinical indicator, NOT a specific disease?

A

anemia

110
Q

can occur with many health problems/ chronic conditions

A

anemia

111
Q

anemia can result from a variety of reasons such as:

A
  • dietary
  • genetic
  • bone marrow disease
  • excessive bleeding
112
Q

key features of anemia

A
  • pallor
  • tachycardia (heart is compensating for lack of O2 to tissues)
  • intolerance to cold
  • brittle nails
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • dyspnea on exertion
  • decreased O2 sat levels
  • fatigue
  • headache
  • irritability, difficulty concentrating
113
Q

causes of anemia:

A

Decreased production
* Iron deficiency
* vit b12 deficiency
* folic acid deficiency
* aplastic anemia
Destruction of RBC
* SCD

114
Q

the most common form of anemia worldwide

A

iron deficiency anemia (microcytic)

115
Q

Iron Def Anemia can result from..

A

blood loss, poor intestinal absorption, or inadequate diet

116
Q

Who might you see Iron Def Anemia in?

A
  • Crohn’s disease
  • UC
  • ETOH
117
Q

with which anemia is the RBCs small (microcytic)

A

Iron def anemia (chronic)

118
Q

symptoms of iron def anemia

A
  • weakness
  • pallor
  • activity intolerance
  • spoon-shaped, concave brittle nails
119
Q

Any adult should be evaluted for abnormal bleeding especially where?

A

GI tract

120
Q

indications of a GI bleed

A
  • tarry stools
  • nausea
  • epigastric pain
  • constipation
  • heartburn (if esophagus is the source of the bleed)
121
Q

treatment for iron def anemia

A
  • increasing oral intake of iron from food sources
  • oral iron supplements
  • IM/ IV iron solution (Venofer)
  • Procrit (Epoetin) - medication that stim the body to make more RBCs
122
Q

iron rich food sources

A
  • organ meat
  • egg yolks
  • kidney beans, beans
  • leafy green veggies
  • raisins
  • beef, meats
  • spinach
  • peanut butter
  • molasses
123
Q

Patient teaching- Iron Def Anemia

A
  • eat iron rich foods with Vit C for better absorption
  • oral iron can stain teeth (use a straw)
124
Q

Iron- IV piggyback

A

over 15 mins; push over 5 slow mins.
anaphalactic shock if given too quickly

125
Q

Vitamin B12

A

cyanocobalamin

126
Q

need to absorb iron and helps to make RBCs; def leads to anemia

A

Vitamin B12

127
Q

Vitamin B12 Def Anemia (macrocytic)

A

lack of Vit B12 causes improper DNA synthesis of RBCs so they increase in size

128
Q

macrocytic

A

large cell size

129
Q

Who can you see Vit B12 def anemia in?

A

vegan dieters, diets lacking dairy; pts with gastric trouble (small bowel resection, chronic diarrhea)

130
Q

Physical assessment of a patient with VitB12 def anemia will reveal what?

A

glossitis = smooth, beefy, red tongue along with fatigue, pallor, jaundice, and weight loss

131
Q

develops slowly; can be mild or severe; pernicious anemia

A

Vit B12 def anemia

132
Q

a type of B12 def (resulting from failure to absorb Vit B12 from intestinal tract); caused by lack of intrinsic factor (which is needed for intestinal absorption of Vit B12); can be mild or severe

A

Pernicious Anemia

133
Q

used to be fatal before treatment became available

A

pernicious anemia

134
Q

Pernicious anemia can occur with…

A
  • small bowel resection
  • tapeworm
  • overgrowth of intestinal bacteria
135
Q

patients with this type of anemia may also have parasthesia

A

pernicious anemia

136
Q

What used to be used to diagnose Pernicious Anemia?

A

Schilling test (text)

137
Q

What is used to diagnose Pernicious Anemia?

A

serum B12 test

138
Q

s/s of paresthesia (neuro)

A
  • numbness
  • tingling
139
Q

s/s of Pernicious Anemia

A
  • paresthesia
  • poor balance
  • glossitis
  • fatigue
  • pallor
  • jaundice
140
Q

How is Vit B12 def anemia and Pernicious anemia managed?

A

increasing intake of foods with B12

141
Q

Vit B12 rich foods

A
  • animal proteins
  • fish
  • eggs
  • nuts
  • dairy
  • dried beans
  • leafy green veggies
142
Q

Where do you most likely give a B12 injection due to its thick, viscousness?

A

ventralgluteal

143
Q

Patients using begin B12 injections, how often?

A

weekly

144
Q

folic acid def anemia s/s

A
  • glossitis
  • fatigue
  • pallor
  • jaundice
  • weight loss
    BUT NERVOUS SYSTEM functions remain NORMAL because folic acid def does not affect nerve function and wont result in PARESTHESIA
145
Q

common causes of folic acid def anemia

A
  • poor nutrition (malnutrition- chronic alcohol abuse)
  • malabsorption (Crohn’s disease)
  • drugs
146
Q

what is the most common cause of folic acid def anemia?

A

poor nutrition

147
Q

Which patient (folic acid def) has increased demands for folate, interactions with meds, poor intake?

A

elderly patients

148
Q

diet for folic acid def anemia

A
  • dark green leafy veggies
  • liver
  • yeast
  • citrus fruits
  • dried beans
  • nuts
  • breakfast cereals
  • peas
  • folic acid supplementation
149
Q

aplastic anemia

A

is a deficiency of circulating RBCs because of the failure of the bone marrow to produce these cells

150
Q

Aplastic Anemia results from:

A
  • injury to the pluripotent cell/ master cells- injury r/t toxic agents, drugs, or viral infection
151
Q

s/s of Aplastic Anemia

A
  • severe anemia
  • infection is a huge threat and common
152
Q

Aplastic anemia often occurs with..

A
  • leukopena
  • thrombocytopenia
  • when both happen together = pancytopenia
153
Q

pancytopenia

A
  • decreased RBCs
  • decreased WBCs
  • decreased platelets
154
Q

treatment for aplastic anemia

A
  • blood transfusions (only used if nec because if used unnec it increases risk of adverse reactin to blood)
  • immunosuppressive therapy
  • splenectomy (needed if spleen is enlarged- splenomegaly, that is either destroying normal RBCs or suppressing their development)
  • stem cell transplant (most successful method of treatment; that doesnt respond to other treatments)
155
Q

immunohemolytic anemia aka?

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

156
Q

immunohemolytic anemia/ autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

an abnormal immunity that results in the excessive destruction of RBCs membrane followed by accelerated RBC production. (basically, RBCs recongnized by the immune system as non-self and are attacked and destroyed)

157
Q

Why does immunohemolytic anemia/ autoimmune hemolytic anemia happen?

A

unknown; idiopathic

158
Q

s/s of immunohemolytic anemia/ autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

pallor and extreme fatigue

159
Q

immunohemolytic anemia/ autoimmune hemolytic anemia treatment

A
  • steroids are 1st line of treatment (prednisone, dexamethasone)
  • immunosuppressive chemo agents
  • plasma exchange to remove antibodies
  • possibly splenectomy
  • balance rest and activity
160
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A

too much of everything! / RED
type of blood cancer that causes the bone marrow to make too many/ excessive RBCs, leukocytes, and platelets; these excess cells thicken the blood causing flow to slow which causes a lot of problems (blood clots)
* technically defined as sustained increase in blood hemoglobin and hematocrit
* very rare

161
Q

Polycythemia Vera- thick blood leads to..

A

stasis leading to thrombosis, leading to tissue hypoxia, leading to infact and necrosis, leading to damage to organs such as the heart, kidneys, other organs and tissues

162
Q

s/s of Polycythemia Vera

A
  • hypertension
  • dark purple facial skin and mucus membranes
  • distended veins
  • intense itching
163
Q

a malignant disease that progresses in severity over time

A

Polycythemia Vera (PV)

164
Q

treatment of PV

A

apheresis or intermittent phlebotomy (where blood is removed from the patient and RBCs are removed/ decreased to decrease viscosity of the blood and then plasma is returned to the patient

165
Q

how much should a PV patient drink in a day?

A

> 3L fluids daily

166
Q

what meds are used for PV patients due to their thick blood?

A

anticoagulants/ blood thinners

167
Q

what gauge needle would be used for a PV patient?

A

large bore, #14

168
Q

another term for white blood cells?

A

leukocytes

169
Q

WBCs

A

provide protection from infection and cancer developement

170
Q

white blood cell disorder

A

leukemia

171
Q

when WBCs are present in abnormal amounts (too much or too little) what is altered in some degree, placing the patient at risk for complications?

A
  • immunity
  • gas exchange
  • clotting
172
Q

leukemia

A

a type of cancer with uncontrolled production of immature WBCs in the bone marrow; as a result bone marrow becomes crowded with immature, nonfunctional cells and production of normal blood cells is greatly reduced

173
Q

leukemia can be acute with sudden onset OR

A

chronic with a slow onset and symptoms that persist for years

174
Q

How are leukemias classified?

A

by how quickly they progress and by the type of cell involved

175
Q

Myeloid Leukemias

A

develop in WBCs known as neutrophils and monocytes that help fight bacteria or fungal infections

176
Q

Lymphocytic Leukemias

A

develop in B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes or natural killer cells that produce antibodies or other substances to fight infections

177
Q

4 main types of leukemias

A
  • AML Acute myelogenous leukemia
  • ALL Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
  • CML Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
  • CLL Chronic Lymphphocytic leukemia
178
Q

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)

A

most common form in adult onset

179
Q

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)

A

most common in children onset

180
Q

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

A

often in people 50 or older

181
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

A

most common chronic type

182
Q

the exact cause of leukemia?

A

is unknown

183
Q

What are involved in the development of leukemia?

A

many genetic and environmental factors

184
Q

possible risk factors of leukemia

A

ionizing radiation (occupational exposure or previous radiation therapy), viral infection, exposure to chemicals (spas, pools, hairdressers, aerosals) and drug exposure, smoking and family history

185
Q

ANT pneumonic to remember the 3 main problems or symptoms associated with leukemia
THINK: leukemia= numerous immature WBCs like ants in an ant colony

A
  • Anemia r/t decreased hemoglobin
  • Neutropenia leading to increased risk of infection
  • Thrombocytopenia increases risk for bleeding
186
Q

Risk for infection is ___ in leukemia.

A

HUGE

187
Q

What is a major cause of death in the patient with leukemia?

A

infection

188
Q

Death results from not only the disease condition (leukemia) itself, but what also?

A

the drugs used to treat leukemia like chemotherapy (which often leaves the patient neutropenic)

189
Q
A
190
Q

neutropenia

A

when a person has low level of neutrophils, which means the patient has trouble fighting off infections

191
Q

neutrophils

A

a type of white blood cell; fight infection by destroying harmful bacteria and fungi (yeast) that invades the body; made in the bone marrow

192
Q

drug therapy leaves cancer patients what? Often on what type meds?

A

neutropenic; antibacterial, antiviral, and antifungal drugs

193
Q

What should neutropenic patients avoid?

A
  • unpeeled fresh fruits and veggies
  • raw or rare-cooked meat, fish and eggs
  • fresh flowers or plants
  • standing water
  • contaminants (reverse isolations for patients, staff/ visitors mask up to protect patient)
194
Q

Limit what with neutropenic patients?

A

visitors (no sick visitors or large crowds)

195
Q

put a sign on the door of a neutropenic patient stating what?

A

Neutropenic Precautions (usually gloves and mask at minimum- for patient’s protection); protective isolation; aseptic technique; good handwashing

196
Q

patients may be on what med to decrease yeast growth?

A

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

197
Q

Continually assess Neutropenic patient for:

A

s/s of infection
* daily CBC with differential
* inspect mouth every shift for lesions or breakdown
* assess lung sounds for adventitous breath sounds
* assess urine for cloudiness

198
Q

Neupogen

A
  • given SubQ or IV- if needed
  • a bone marrow stimulant that helps the body make WBCs
199
Q

What is the earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient?

A

an elevated temperature

200
Q

What standing orders should you have on a neutropenic patient?

A

blood culture at first onset of any temperature

201
Q

HSCT

A

hematopoietic stem cell transplant/ bone marrow transplant

202
Q

is a standard treatment for the patient with leukemia (also lymphoma, multiple myeloma, aplastic anemia, sickle cell disease and many solid tumors) who has a closely matched donor (tissue match not blood type) and who is in temporary remission after induction therapy

A

Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant/ bone marrow transplant (HSCT)

203
Q

The process of a bone marrow transpant (HSCT) can take how long?

A

longer process- can take up to 36 days or longer

204
Q

the process of HSCT/ bone marrow transplant goes like this… admission then what?

A

patient will go through chemo and radiation to wipe out their own bone marrow and then receive transplant

205
Q

Why is the process of HSCT/ bone marrow transplant a time of great risk for infection?

A

they have no immune system

206
Q

after how many days will engraftment occur?

A

14-21 days
14 days

207
Q

engraftment

A

the successful take of transplanted cells

208
Q

when successful engraftment occurs what will be present in the patient?

A

only donor cells

209
Q

day zero

A

the day of transplant (T-0)

210
Q

autologous transplant

A

use own stem cells; collect blood stem cells through process called apheresis

211
Q

allogeneic transplant

A

use stem cells from a donor (such as a sibling); or from umbilical cord (parents choose to donate umbilical cord blood after birth)

212
Q

bone marrow harvesting

A

procedure occurs in OR where marrow removed through multiple aspirations from the iliac crests; donors marrow will regrow within few weeks

213
Q

bone marrow transplant occurs when?

A

after you complete the conditioning process

214
Q

day zero the stem cells are infused into the patient’s body through what?

A

central line

215
Q

the patient is — and the transfusion is —

A

awake, painless

216
Q

It usually take a how many weeks before the number of blood cells in the body return to normal?

A

several weeks (14 days)

217
Q

What are some possible complications of a bone marrow transplant (HSCT)?

A
  • graft-versus-host disease (allogeneic transplant only)
  • stem cell (graft) failure
  • organ damage
  • infections
  • cataracts
  • inferitility
  • new cancers
  • death
218
Q

graft-versus-host disease

A

:condition occurs when the donor stem cells that make up your new immune system see your body’s tissues and organs as something foreign and attack them

219
Q

malignant lymphomas

A

cancers of the lymphoid tissue with abnormal overgrowth of lymphocytes

220
Q

growth occurs as solid tumors in lymphoid tissues scattered throughout the body, especially the lymph nodes and spleen, rather than in the bone marrow

A

malignant lymphomas

221
Q

2 main types of malignant lymphomas

A
  • Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
  • Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
222
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A
  • can affect any age group, however more often seen in 2 age groups: teens/ young adults and adults in their 50-60’s
  • cause is unknown
  • one of the most treatable forms of cancer
  • Reed-Sternberg cells are present
223
Q

usually starts in a single lymph or in a single chain of nodes; nodes contain a certain type of cell called Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

224
Q

marker for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

225
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

:a specific type of cancer cell; marker for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

226
Q

s/s of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A
  • painless swelling of lymph nodes in neck, armpits, or groin
  • nodes do become painful after drinking alcohol
  • persistent fever
  • drenching night sweats
  • unexplained weight loss
  • itching
227
Q

Dx of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

biopsy of lymph nodes and Reed-Sternberg cells found

228
Q

After dx of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, staging is performed to determine what?

A

extent of the disease

229
Q

Treatment regimen for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

determined by extent of disease; staging process is very detailed/ thorough

230
Q

Staging of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma usually includes?

A
  • H&P exam, CBC, electrolyte panel, kidney and liver function tests, ESR, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, CT of head and neck, and PET scan
231
Q

treatment of stage 1 and 2 Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

external radiation of involved lymph node regions
-with more extensive diease, radiation and chemotherapy treatment of choice (chemp precautions- single use bathrooms…)
-if radiation to the pelvic area- leading to steriliity in males; possible sperm banking before treament

232
Q

increased risks regarding treatment of stage 1 & 2 Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

infection, anemia, bleeding, severe n/v, skin problems at the site of radiation, constipation or diarrhea, steriliity, development of secondary cancer/ antoher form of cancer

233
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

includes all lymphoid cancers that do not have the Reed-Sternberg cell; cause is unknown but associated with H. pylori and Epstein Barr virus; incidence higher in patients with organ transplantation & HIV disease

234
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is not a single disease, but rather..

A

a group of diseases (divided into 30 types)

235
Q

When is Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma diagnosed?

A

usually not dx until it has reached a more advanced stage

236
Q

symptoms of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

several swollen glands (slow growing) to metastatic disease

237
Q

Treatment options for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma depend on?

A

type and stage of the lymphoma and other factors

238
Q

treatment options for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A
  • chemo= main treatment
  • immunotherapy includes monoclonal antibodies to attack a certain target
  • radiation- external beam radiation/ localized radiation therapy
  • a stem cell transplant (also known as a bone marrow transplant) lets doctos give higher doses of chemotherapy, sometimes along with radiation therapy
239
Q

multiple myeloma

A

a cancer of plasma cells; it is a WBC cancer where plasma cells become cancerous and grow out of control

240
Q

when myeloma cells are overproduced…

A

fewer RBCs, WBCs and platelets are produced (pancytopenia); leading to anemia and increased risk for infection and bleeding; also interferes with cells that help keep bones strong (tells osteoclasts to speed up dissolving bones)

241
Q

multiple myeloma is more common in whom?

A

adults over age 65 and is more prevalent in African Americans

242
Q

cause of multiple myeloma

A

unknown but possible risk factors include radiation exposure, chemical exposure and infection with specific strains of herpes virus

243
Q

at time of dx of multiple myeloma, patient’s symptoms are?

A

asymptomatic but may describe having fatigue, bone pain, easy bruising, pathological fractures

244
Q

blood work in patients with multiple myeloma

A
  • increase in serum total protein
  • kidney dysfunction
  • increased calcium levels
245
Q

dx for multiple myeloma made how?

A

by xray findings- bone will show that they look like swiss cheese

246
Q

treatment for multiple myeloma

A

varies; depends on if patient is a candidate for stem cell transplant; can also see steroids, standard chemo; analgesics for pain/ bone pain

247
Q

remains largely incurable even with treatment

A

multiple myeloma

248
Q

hemophilia

A
  • hereditary (x-linked recessive)
  • 2 forms
    hemophilia A
    hemophilia B
  • no cure
249
Q

a hereditary bleeding disorder with 2 forms; defect or absence in certain blood clotting factors

A

hemophilia

250
Q

hemophilia A

A

classic hemophilia; deficiency of factor VIII; accounts for 80% of cases

251
Q

hemophilia B

A

christmas disease; deficiency of factor IX; accounts for 20% of cases; named for 5 yr old boy 1st pt described

252
Q

sometimes referred to as “the royal disease” because it affected the royal families of England, Germany, Russia, and Spain in the 19th and 20th centruries. Queen Victoria of England is believed to have been the carrier of Hemo B or factor IX. She passed the trait on to 3 of her 9 children. Hemo was carried through various royal families members for 3 generations after Victoria, then disappeared.

A

hemophilia

253
Q

someone with hemophilia does not bleed —- than someone without hemophilia. However, the person with hemophilia will bleed —.

A

faster; longer

254
Q

What should be monitored in patient with hemophilia?

A

excessive bleeding from minor cuts, bruises, or abrasions

255
Q

joint and muscle hemorrhages can lead to ?

A

disabling long-term problems- may need joint replacement

256
Q

patient with hemophilia may what easily?

A

bruise

257
Q

what is a hemophilia patient at risk of after surgery?

A

prolonged and potentially fatal hemorrhage

258
Q

of hemophiliac patients do not get medical attention in time/ factor medication, what are they at risk for?

A

compartment syndrome

259
Q

What should a nurse educate a patient with hemophilia on?

A
  • avoid injury as much as possible
  • no contact sports
  • avoid meds that promote bleeding
  • avoid use of enemas
  • maintain good nutrition
  • maintain good dental hygiene
  • teach how to apply direct pressure if bleeding does occur
260
Q

what are hemophilia patients at risk for?

A
  • intracranial hemorrhage
  • prolonged nosebleeds
  • bruises easily
  • warm painful joints with decreased movement/ mobility
  • GI bleed
  • compartment syndrome

MED SURG 2 (13 decks)

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