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Bio Midterm > Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation > Flashcards

Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation Flashcards

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1
Q

All of the following statements describe characteristics of cancer cells EXCEPT which one?
A) Cancer cells may migrate to other locations in the body.
B) Cancer cells often have an enlarged nucleus.
C) Cancer cells lose the ability to control cell division.
D) Cancer cells typically are overdifferentiated.
E) Cancer cells no longer perform their specialized functions prior to becoming cancerous.

A

D) Cancer cells typically are overdifferentiated.

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2
Q 
A mass of rapidly dividing cells that have potentially lost the ability to regulate cell division is called a(n)
A) neoplasm.
B) angiogenesis.
C) malignancy.
D) metastasis.
E) keratosis.
A

A) neoplasm.

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3
Q 
When a cancer remains in one location, it is referred to as
A) benign.
B) dysplasia.
C) in situ cancer.
D) hyperplasia.
E) metastasis.
A

C) in situ cancer.

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4
Q 
Cancers that metastasize and invade normal tissues to impede their functions are called
A) benign tumors.
B) keratosis.
C) malignant tumors.
D) in situ cancer.
E) neoplasm.
A

C) malignant tumors.

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5
Q 
Which one of the following is shown in the figure above?
A) in situ cancer
B) death of a neoplasm
C) metastatic tumor
D) benign tumor
E) precancerous mass of cells
A

C) metastatic tumor

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6
Q

Which one of the following CORRECTLY represents the progression to cancer?
A) in situ, dysplasia, hyperplasia, malignancy
B) dysplasia, in situ tumor, malignancy, hyperplasia
C) hyperplasia, dysplasia, in situ tumor, malignancy
D) dysplasia, hyperplasia, malignancy, in situ tumor
E) malignancy, in situ tumor, hyperplasia, dysplasia

A

C) hyperplasia, dysplasia, in situ tumor, malignancy

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7
Q 
The chance that an individual in the United States will experience some form of cancer in his or her lifetime is
A) 1 in 3.
B) 1 in 10.
C) 1 in 25.
D) 1 in 1,000.
E) 1 in 10,000.
A

A) 1 in 3

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8
Q 
Any factor that can contribute to the conversion of a healthy cell into a cancerous one is known as
A) a tumor.
B) a carcinogen.
C) a growth factor.
D) regulatory genes.
E) a growth inhibitor.
A

B) a carcinogen

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9
Q 
Oncogenes are derived from
A) malignant tumors.
B) proto-oncogenes.
C) mutated keratotic cells.
D) healthy tumor suppressor genes.
E) benign tumors.
A

B) porto-oncogenes

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10
Q 
Tumor suppressor genes function to
A) prevent gene expression of oncogenes.
B) prevent release of growth factors.
C) slow down unchecked cell growth, differentiation, division, or adhesion.
D) produce proto-oncogenes.
E) stimulate metastasis.
A

C) slow down unchecked cell growth, differentiation, division, or adhesion.

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11
Q 
Damage to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ greatly reduces a cell's ability to repair DNA during DNA replication.
A) mutator genes
B) proto-oncogenes
C) repair genes
D) structural genes
E) somatic genes
A

A) mutator genes

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12
Q

In which one of the following ways does a proto-oncogene differ from an oncogene?
A) Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that regulate the expression of structural genes; oncogenes code for nucleic acids involved in cell division.
B) Proto-oncogenes control normal cell division; oncogenes contribute to the development of cancer.
C) When oncogenes become damaged, they become proto-oncogenes.
D) Oncogenes activate tumor suppressor genes; proto-oncogenes repress tumor suppressor genes.
E) Proto-oncogenes cause cells to self-destruct when damaged; oncogenes cause damaged cells to repair themselves.

A

B) Proto-oncogenes control normal cell division; oncogenes contribute to the development of cancer.

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13
Q

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommended that women who are not at risk for breast cancer wait to have yearly screening mammograms until age 50, as opposed to the previous recommendation of age 40, because
A) breast tissue is more sensitive to radiation damage before menopause than after.
B) the cost of the screening is not covered by insurance until after a woman reaches menopause.
C) most forms of breast cancer do not develop until later in life.
D) the method of screening is more accurate in older women than younger.
E) delaying the screening ensures that younger, more at-risk women, are able to schedule the preventive tests.

A

A) breast tissue is more sensitive to radiation damage before menopause than after.

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14
Q

The normal form of the p53 gene
A) is a type of proto-oncogene.
B) has been linked to the development of colon cancer.
C) codes for a protein that prevents damaged cells from dividing.
D) is a type of oncogene that causes skin cancer.
E) codes for proteins that stimulate cell growth and adhesion.

A

C) codes for a protein that prevents damaged cells from dividing.

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15
Q 
Tobacco is a carcinogen that has NOT been linked to the induction of cancer in which one of the following?
A) pancreas
B) lungs
C) mouth
D) pharynx
E) liver
A

E) liver

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16
Q 
Free radicals produced during biochemical reactions can serve as carcinogens if they are NOT neutralized by
A) mutator genes.
B) growth factors.
C) antioxidants.
D) repair enzymes.
E) proto-oncogenes.
A

C) antioxidants.

17
Q 
All of the following infectious microorganisms are thought to contribute to cancer EXCEPT which one?
A) E. coli
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) human papillomavirus
D) Helicobacter pylori
E) hepatitis B virus
A

A) E. coli

18
Q 
Which one of the following types of cancer is preventable by a vaccine?
A) lung cancer
B) cervical cancer
C) breast cancer
D) colon cancer
E) skin cancer
A

B) cervical cancer

19
Q 
A diet high in red meat and saturated fat increases the risk for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cancers.
A) colon, rectum, and prostate gland
B) breast and liver
C) brain and lung
D) lung, stomach, and liver
E) colon, breast, and liver
A

A) colon, rectum, and prostate gland

20
Q 
The dietary carcinogen aflatoxin can be found in
A) fresh fruits.
B) red meats.
C) salt.
D) alcohol.
E) raw peanut butter.
A

E) raw peanut butter.

21
Q

Which one of the following carcinogens accounts for 30% of all cancer deaths?
A) environmental chemicals (e.g., asbestos, pesticides, soot, coal tar)
B) tobacco smoke
C) ultraviolet light
D) ionizing radiation (X rays)
E) radon gas

A

B) tobacco smoke

22
Q 
Which one of the following diagnostic imaging techniques does NOT expose the patient to additional radiation?
A) X- rays and ultrasounds
B) ultrasounds and PET scans
C) ultrasounds and MRI
D) PET scans and MRI
E) PET scans and X-rays
A

C) ultrasounds and MRI

23
Q 
One method for detecting tumors in body tissue involves the use of radioactive materials to create three-dimensional images showing metabolic activity of a specific tissue. This technique is referred to as
A) magnetic resonance imaging.
B) positron-emission tomography.
C) mammography.
D) electrophoresis.
E) photodynamic therapy.
A

B) positron-emission tomography.

24
Q 
The process by which growing tumors stimulate the growth of new blood vessels is called
A) metastasis.
B) angiogenesis.
C) keratosis.
D) hyperplasia.
E) dysplasia.
A

B) angiogenesis.

25
Q 
The use of cancer-specific antigens to generate antibodies that target cancer cells is a process known as
A) immunotherapy.
B) radiation therapy.
C) angiogenesis.
D) chemotherapy.
E) antigenic loading
A

A) immunotherapy.

26
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding chemotherapy?
A) This technique is used in the diagnosis of cancer.
B) This procedure kills cancer cells and normal cells that divide rapidly.
C) This is the selected technique in the treatment of cancer because there are no side effects.
D) This is a procedure used to genetically engineer an individual so cancer will not develop.
E) Most chemicals used in this procedure affect only one organ of the body.

A

B) This procedure kills cancer cells and normal cells that divide rapidly.

27
Q 
The use of laser light to trigger toxic reactions specific to cancer cells is referred to as
A) angiogenesis.
B) molecular annihilation.
C) photosynthesis.
D) fluorescent microscopy.
E) photodynamic therapy.
A

E) photodynamic therapy.

28
Q

Common side effects associated with chemotherapy are due to
A) fevers induced by the chemicals.
B) death of cancer cells and their subsequent removal from the body.
C) change in blood pH caused by the chemicals.
D) death of normal cells caused by the chemicals.
E) destruction of RNA in most normal cells.

A

D) death of normal cells caused by the chemicals.

29
Q 
Development of cancer in cells within lymph nodes is called
A) in situ.
B) lymphoma.
C) leukemia.
D) keratosis.
E) cervical.
A

B) lymphoma.

30
Q

In which one of the following ways are antiangiogenic drugs used in the treatment of cancer?
A) These drugs stop the replication of DNA, so cancer cells cannot reproduce.
B) These drugs stop the growth of blood vessels into the tumor, so the cells “starve” to death.
C) These drugs stop metastasis.
D) These drugs stimulate the immune system.
E) These drugs stimulate the production of free radicals, which kill cancer cells.

A

B) These drugs stop the growth of blood vessels into the tumor, so the cells “starve” to death.

31
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding photodynamic therapy?
A) It involves the use of light-sensitive drugs to target a cancer.
B) It uses magnets to attract beads coated with a chemotherapeutic drug to a cancer.
C) It is used for the treatment of cancers of the breast and ovary.
D) It inhibits angiogenesis.
E) It involves the use of antibodies to deliver treatments to a cancer.

A

A) It involves the use of light-sensitive drugs to target a cancer.

32
Q 
If angiogenesis were not to occur, a tumor would reach the size of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and stop growing.
A) period on a typewritten page (.)
B) baseball
C) grapefruit
D) pea
E) basketball
A

D) pea

33
Q 
Which one of the following types of cancer kills the highest percentage of people diagnosed with the condition?
A) lung
B) breast
C) prostate
D) skin
E) colon
A

A) lung

34
Q 
All of the following are risks associated with the development of colon cancer EXCEPT which one?
A) low-fiber diet
B) obesity
C) family history
D) consumption of vitamins A, C, and E
E) smoking
A

D) consumption of vitamins A, C, and E

35
Q

Using the ABCD rule for diagnosing a melanoma associated with the skin, the “D” refers to
A) darkness of the spot or region of the skin, usually varying in intensity of the color black.
B) degree of irregularity of the spot from a circle.
C) diameter of the spot.
D) density or thickness of the melanoma.
E) “damage,” or the extent that the skin cells have lost normal function.

A

C) diameter of the spot.

36
Q 
A mutation in which one of the following genes can lead to breast cancer?
A) BT05
B) HeLa
C) BRCA1
D) BCG
E) BCG2
A

C) BRCA1

37
Q 
Not only does smoking cause lung cancer, it also quadruples the risk of which one of the following types of cancer?
A) stomach
B) prostate
C) bladder
D) colon
E) brain
A

C) bladder

38
Q 
The development of a cancerous condition in immature white blood cells located in bone marrow is called
A) leukemia.
B) hyperplasia.
C) lymphoma.
D) hypoplasia.
E) dysplasia.
A

A) leukemia.

39
Q 
For women with a mutated BRCA gene, the risk of breast cancer is about 60%. However, detection of the mutated gene can occur before cancer ever develops by
A) testing of a blood sample.
B) screening mammography.
C) taking a biopsy of breast tissue.
D) a PET scan.
E) urinalysis.
A

A) testing of a blood sample.

Bio Midterm (19 decks)

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