Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation Flashcards

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1
Q
During which one of the following phases of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A) G2 phase
B) telophase
C) metaphase
D) S phase
E) G1 of interphase
A

D) S phase

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2
Q
During which one of the following phases of the cell cycle does the nucleus divide?
A) G2 phase
B) interphase
C) S phase
D) late into G0
E) mitotic phase
A

E) mitotic phase

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3
Q
DNA is organized and arranged in the nucleus as
A) mitotic spindles.
B) chromosomes.
C) histones.
D) the nucleolus.
E) ribosomes.
A

B) chromosomes.

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4
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?
A) The mitotic phase is longer than interphase.
B) During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides and four daughter cells result.
C) During mitosis, DNA is divided into two sets and distributed equally to the daughter cells.
D) DNA of the cell is replicated during this phase.
E) Most of the growth of the cell occurs during this phase.

A

C) During mitosis, DNA is divided into two sets and distributed equally to the daughter cells.

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5
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the G0 phase of the cell cycle?
A) G0 is an abnormal state, and cells in this stage have been damaged.
B) Neurons and osteocytes remain in G0 after adolescence.
C) Most cancer cells have entered the G0 phase.
D) Once in G0, a cell remains there.
E) Stems cells in the bone marrow are typically in the G0 phase.

A

B) Neurons and osteocytes remain in G0 after adolescence.

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6
Q
During which one of the following stages of the cell cycle do the chromosomes exist in the form of chromatin not really visible under the microscope?
A) metaphase
B) anaphase
C) interphase
D) early part of telophase
E) all stages of mitosis
A

C) interphase

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7
Q
The process by which the DNA code is converted from a single gene into a complementary single strand of mRNA is called
A) replication.
B) reproduction.
C) translation.
D) metabolism.
E) transcription.
A

E) transcription.

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8
Q
Once an RNA molecule has been made from DNA, it enters the cytoplasm of the cell where it is used by the cell to produce a
A) fat.
B) cell membrane.
C) carbohydrate.
D) nucleus.
E) protein.
A

E) protein.

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9
Q

Which one of the following statements CORRECTLY describes how DNA is replicated?
A) Each strand of the original DNA is first completely separated from the other.
B) Replication of DNA occurs at multiple locations on the two original strands as the DNA is unzipped.
C) Replication of DNA can begin anywhere along the length of the strands.
D) The two original strands are first broken down to release nucleotides for the synthesis of new DNA.
E) One of the original strands of DNA serves as a template for new DNA; the other strand is broken down to release nucleotides for the synthesis of new DNA.

A

B) Replication of DNA occurs at multiple locations on the two original strands as the DNA is unzipped.

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10
Q
During DNA replication, complementary nucleotides are added to the separated strands of the original DNA by enzymes. Which one of the following bases would a nucleotide contain if it were paired to a nucleotide containing thymine?
A) adenine
B) uracil
C) another thymine
D) cytosine
E) guanine
A

A) adenine

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11
Q

Which one of the following statements CORRECTLY compares the effects of a mutation in a gamete to the effects of a mutation in a somatic cell?
A) Somatic cell mutations always cause cancer, whereas gamete mutations do not.
B) Gamete mutations are passed to the next generation, whereas somatic cell mutations are not.
C) Gamete mutations are typically deadly, whereas somatic cell mutations are not.
D) Somatic cell mutations are typically deadly, whereas gamete mutations are not.
E) Mutations in both types of cells usually result in cancer.

A

B) Gamete mutations are passed to the next generation, whereas somatic cell mutations are not

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12
Q

Mutations in human DNA rarely impair normal cell function because
A) repair of DNA prevents all mutations from ever causing damage to a cell.
B) damaged cells commit “suicide” to prevent damage to the body.
C) cells have one major repair enzyme that corrects the mutations quickly.
D) multiple DNA repair enzymes usually quickly correct the mutations before any damage can occur.
E) the cells attack dysfunctional gene products, averting damage to the cell.

A

D) multiple DNA repair enzymes usually quickly correct the mutations before any damage can occur.

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13
Q

Which one of the following statements describes the process through which a primary RNA transcript becomes a functional mRNA?
A) Sections of the primary transcript called exons are removed, and the sections that remain are spliced together.
B) Sections of RNA called exons are added to the primary transcript.
C) A primary transcript needs no editing and is immediately ready to function as mRNA.
D) Noncoding sections of the primary transcript, called introns, are removed, and the remaining coding sections, called exons, are spliced together.
E) Random sections of the primary transcript called exons are replaced with sections called introns.

A

D) Noncoding sections of the primary transcript, called introns, are removed, and the remaining coding sections, called exons, are spliced together.

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14
Q
How many codons are in the following sequence of nucleotides: AAAUGCUCGUAA?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 12
A

C) 4

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15
Q

The processes of initiation, elongation, and termination that occur in the production of a protein are all associated with
A) DNA replication.
B) processing of a fat in the endoplasmic reticulum.
C) correction of a mutation.
D) formation of an intact ribosome.
E) translation.

A

E) translation.

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16
Q

A codon is
A) a type of DNA repair enzyme.
B) a promoter that prevents the attachment of RNA polymerase.
C) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid.
D) the part of the ribosome to which mRNA attaches.
E) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on tRNA that corresponds to an amino acid.

A

C) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid.

17
Q
At which one of the following stages of the cell cycle does a chromosome develop into two sister chromatids?
A) mitotic phase
B) S phase
C) G1 phase
D) G2 phase
E) G0 phase
A

B) S phase

18
Q
It is evident that translation occurs at ribosomes because they contain binding sites for
A) primary transcripts of mRNA.
B) DNA repair enzymes.
C) rRNA.
D) tRNA and mRNA.
E) mitotic spindles.
A

D) tRNA and mRNA.

19
Q
Which one of the following stages of mitosis is shown in the figure above, and which stage comes next?
A) anaphase, telophase
B) telophase, anaphase
C) prophase, anaphase
D) metaphase, anaphase
E) metaphase, telophase
A

A) anaphase, telophase

20
Q
Chromosomes first become visible as two sister chromatids held together at the centromere during which one of the following phases?
A) G1
B) metaphase
C) S
D) prophase
E) anaphase
A

D) prophase

21
Q

Mitosis differs from meiosis in that only mitosis
A) is preceded by interphase.
B) involves two successive cell divisions.
C) results in the production of haploid cells.
D) involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I.
E) results in cells that are genetically identical to the original cell.

A

E) results in cells that are genetically identical to the original cell.

22
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes the chromosomes in the cells at the end of meiosis I?
A) DNA replication in the S phase has led to a doubling in chromosome number.
B) The cells contain the haploid number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosome number and structure are identical to the beginning of the S phase.
D) The cells contain the diploid number of chromosomes.
E) The chromosome number is the same as that before meiosis began, but the DNA content is half the original cell.

A

B) The cells contain the haploid number of chromosomes.

23
Q
A drug that interferes with the development and function of microtubules would interfere with
A) G0 phase of the cell cycle.
B) metaphase and anaphase of mitosis.
C) S phase of the cell cycle.
D) DNA replication.
E) G1 phase of the cell cycle.
A

B) metaphase and anaphase of mitosis.

24
Q
Which one of the following cell types typically divide throughout one's life?
A) osteocytes
B) stem cells in the bone marrow
C) neurons
D) muscle cells
E) liver cells
A

B) stem cells in the bone marrow

25
Q
At which one of the following checkpoints might the cell cycle be halted if all of the DNA has not yet been replicated?
A) G1
B) G2
C) M
D) T
E) S
A

B) G2

26
Q

Cell differentiation of a pre-embryo begins
A) immediately upon the first division of the fertilized egg.
B) after the 32-cell stage.
C) after the 4-cell stage.
D) after the 8-cell stage.
E) after the 2-cell stage

A

D) after the 8-cell stage.

27
Q
The process by which cells become specialized from one another is called
A) differentiation.
B) mitosis.
C) pluripotency.
D) meiotic specialization.
E) cleavage.
A

A) differentiation.

28
Q

Embryo splitting is a type of cloning in which an egg is fertilized in vitro and
A) then the genomic DNA is replaced with that from a desired donor.
B) allowed to reach the fetus stage before implanted into the designated mother.
C) then following mitosis, the intact nuclei are transferred to somatic cells for embryo development.
D) the cells are split after the eight-cell stage to be implanted into a surrogate mother.
E) subjected to nuclear transfer.

A

D) the cells are split after the eight-cell stage to be implanted into a surrogate mother.

29
Q
Cloning of human cells for the purpose of treating a patient is referred to as
A) embryo splitting.
B) pluripotency.
C) somatic cell nuclear transfer.
D) medicinal cloning.
E) therapeutic cloning.
A

E) therapeutic cloning.

30
Q

Therapeutic cloning differs from reproductive cloning in that therapeutic cloning
A) is the cloning of human stem cells to treat human diseases.
B) involves the extraction of a patient’s bone marrow.
C) results in an individual genetically identical to the DNA donor.
D) is not a controversial topic.
E) involves transfer of genomic DNA into a recipient somatic cell.

A

A) is the cloning of human stem cells to treat human diseases.