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NURS 252 > Chapter 17 - Nose, Mouth, and Throat > Flashcards

Chapter 17 - Nose, Mouth, and Throat Flashcards

1
Q

What is the columella of the nose?

A

part that divides the two nares and is continuous with the septum

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2
Q

What is the ala of the nose?

A

lateral outside wing

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3
Q

What are vibrissae?

A

nasal hairs

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4
Q

What do nasal hairs filter?

A

coarse matter from inhaled air

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5
Q

What does the ciliated mucous blanket filter?

A

dust and bacteria

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6
Q

Why does nasal mucosa appear redder than oral mucosa?

A

rich blood supply used to warm inhaled air

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7
Q

What divides the nasal cavity?

A

the septum

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8
Q

What is the Kiesselbach’s plexus?

A

vascular network in the septum

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9
Q

Where is the most common site of nosebleeds?

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus

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10
Q

What are turbinates?

A

paralleled body projections in the nasal cavity

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11
Q

What is the role of turbinates?

A

Increase surface area so more blood vessels and mucous membranes are available

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12
Q

How many turbinates are there?

A

3

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13
Q

What is the meatus?

A

a cleft under each turbinate that is named for the turbinate above

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14
Q

What drains into the middle meatus?

A

sinuses

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15
Q

What drains into the inferior meatus?

A

tears from nasolacrimal duct

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16
Q

Which cranial never is the olfactory nerve?

A

I

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17
Q

Where does CN I transmit impulses?

A

temporal lobe

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18
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses?

A

air-filled pockets in the cranium

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19
Q

What is the role of the paranasal sinuses?

A

lighten the weight of the skull, resonate sound, provide mucus

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20
Q

How many frontal sinus are there?

A

2

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21
Q

Where are the frontal sinus located?

A

frontal bone above and medial to the orbits

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22
Q

Where are the maxillary sinuses?

A

in the maxilla (cheekbones)

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23
Q

Where are the ethmoid sinuses?

A

between the orbits

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24
Q

Where are the sphenoid sinuses?

A

deep within the skull in the sphenoid bone

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25
Q

Where is the hard palate?

A

anterior

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26
Q

What is the hard palate made of?

A

bone

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27
Q

What colour is the hard palate?

A

whitish

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28
Q

Where is the soft palate?

A

posterior

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29
Q

What colour is the soft palate?

A

pink

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30
Q

What is the frenulum?

A

a midline fold of tissue connecting the tongue to the floor of the mouth

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31
Q

Which salivary gland is the largest?

A

parotid

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32
Q

Where is the parotid gland?

A

in the cheeks, in front of the ear

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33
Q

What is the parotid glands duct called?

A

Stensen’s duct

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34
Q

Where is Stensen’s duct?

A

across from the second molar

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35
Q

How big is the submandibular gland?

A

the size of a walnut

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36
Q

Where is the submandibular gland?

A

beneath the mandible at the angle of the jaw

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37
Q

Which salivary gland is the smallest?

A

sublingual

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38
Q

Where is the sublingual gland?

A

the floor of the mouth

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39
Q

How many permanent teeth do adults have?

A

32

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40
Q

What kind of tissue are the gums?

A

fibrous tissue covered in mucous membrane

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41
Q

What separates the oropharynx from the mouth?

A

anterior tonsillar pillars

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42
Q

When does tonsillar tissue begin to decrease in size and function?

A

after puberty

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43
Q

The nasopharynx is continuous with the ____________

A

oropharynx

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44
Q

Where is the nasopharynx?

A

above the oropharynx and behind the nasal cavity

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45
Q

When does salivation start in infants?

A

3 months of age

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46
Q

How many temporary deciduous teeth do children have?

A

20

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47
Q

When do teeth begin to errupt?

A

6-24 months

48
Q

All 20 teeth should appear by ____ years of age

A

2.5

49
Q

When are deciduous teeth lost?

A

between age 6 and 12

50
Q

Which teeth are the first to be lost?

A

central incisors

51
Q

Epistaxis

A

nosebleeds

52
Q

Why are nose bleeds and nasal stuffiness more common during pregnancy?

A

due to increased vascularity in the upper respiratory tract

53
Q

Atrophy in the oral cavity results in an ______% reduction in taste functioning

A

80%

54
Q

What is candidiasis (thrush)?

A

oral yeast infection

55
Q

What is malocclusion?

A

teeth drift that causes upper or lower incisors to drift

56
Q

What are the adverse effects of malocclusion?

A

-bone reabsorption, then further tooth loss
-muscle imbalance, spasms, tenderness, chronic headaches
-increases TMJ stress that leads to osteoarthritis and pain

57
Q

What kind of medications decrease saliva production?

A

anticholinergic

58
Q

Which ethnic population has a higher incidence of cleft lip?

A

indigenous

59
Q

What is torus palatinus?

A

a bony ridge running down the middle of the hard palate

60
Q

Torus palatinus is more commin in people of which descent?

A

indigenous and asian

61
Q

What is Leukoedema?

A

greyish-white benign lesion occuring in the buccal mucosa

62
Q

Which group is leukoedema common in?

A

people of African descent

63
Q

Edentulism

A

toothlessness

64
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

nasal discharge

65
Q

Odynophagia

A

pain while swallowing

66
Q

What does testing nostril patency reveal?

A

obstruction

67
Q

What should you normally view with an otoscope in the nasal cavity?

A

red colour, smooth moist surface

68
Q

Why is documentation of deviated septum important?

A

in case of need for nasal suctioning or a ng (nasogastric) tube

69
Q

What should the buccal mucosa look like?

A

pink, smooth, moist

70
Q

What are Fordyce’s granules?

A

small, isolated white or yellow papules that are painless and significant

71
Q

Where can Fordyce’s granules be found?

A

cheeks, tongue, lips

72
Q

What does the “ahhhh” test check?

A

CN X the vagus nerve

73
Q

Halitosis

A

breath odour

74
Q

What can cause halitosis?

A

food consumption, alcohol consumption, heavy smoking, dental infection, systemic disease

75
Q

Tonsil Grade 1+

A

visible

76
Q

Tonsil Grade 2+

A

halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula

77
Q

Tonsil Grade 3+

A

touching the uvula

78
Q

Tonsil Grade 4+

A

touching each other

79
Q

What grade of tonsils in seen in healthy people?

A

1+ or 2+

80
Q

How do you depress the tongue?

A

-push down halfway back, pushing on the tip will hump the back
-press slightly off-centre to avoid eliciting the gag reflex

81
Q

Which cranial nerves control the gag reflex?

A

CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus)

82
Q

How do you test CN XII (hypoglossal nerve)

A

ask patient to stick out tongue and observe if it protrudes in the midline

83
Q

What are Epstein Pearls?

A

a normal finding in newborns and infants - small, whitish, pearly papules on hard palate and gums

84
Q

What are bednar apathae?

A

traumatic areas or ulcers on the posterior hard palate resulting from abraisions during sucking

85
Q

Are tonsils visible in newborns?

A

no

86
Q

What is choanal atresia?

A

bony or membranous septum between nasal cavity and pharynx of newborn

87
Q

What is a perforated septum?

A

a hole in the septum, can be caused by cocaine use, trauma

88
Q

What is a furuncle?

A

small boil on skin that is red, swollen, and painful

89
Q

What is sinusitis?

A

facial pain after upper respiratory infection characterized by red, swollen nasal mucosa and purulent discharge

90
Q

What are nasal polyps?

A

smooth, pale grey nodules, overgrowths of mucosa, most commonly caused by chronic allergic rhinitis

91
Q

What is angular cheilitis?

A

erythema, scaling, and shallow painful fissures at the corner of the mouth occur with excess salivation and candida infection

92
Q

What is baby bottle tooth decay?

A

destruction of deciduous teeth in older infants who take milk or juice to bed

93
Q

What is Malocclusion?

A

teeth aren’t aligned properly between the upper and lower rows (bite)

94
Q

What are dental caries?

A

progressive tooth destruction, eventually forms cavity

95
Q

What is epulis?

A

growth on the gingiva or alveolar mucosa

96
Q

What is gingival hyperplasia?

A

painless enlargement of the gums, sometimes overreaching the teeth

97
Q

When does gingival hyperplasia often occur?

A

puberty, pregnancy, leukemia, long term phenytoin use

98
Q

What is gingivitis?

A

earliest stage of gum disease due to plaque and bacteria build up on the teeth

99
Q

What is meth mouth?

A

Extreme tooth decay due to meth abuse, often with black stained or rotting teeth

100
Q

What are aphthous ulcers?

A

aka chancre sores, they are vesicles first, last 1-2 weeks

101
Q

What causes aphthous ulcers?

A

unknown - associated with stress, fatigue, and food allergy

102
Q

What are Koplik’s spots?

A

small white spots, a pathogenic feature of measles in pre-eruptive stages

103
Q

What is leukoplakia?

A

chalky white, thick raised patch with well-defined borers

104
Q

Where does leukoplakia occur?

A

occurs on the lateral edges of the tongue

105
Q

What causes leukoplakia?

A

heavy smoking and alcohol use

106
Q

Why are leukoplakia concerning?

A

they are precancerous and associated with squamous carcinoma

107
Q

What is thrush (candidiasis)?

A

a fungal infection that develops in the mouth and leads to white lesions on tongue and inner cheeks

108
Q

What is ankyloglossia?

A

aka tongue-tie that fixes the tongue to the floor of the mouth and affects speech

109
Q

What is a fissured tongue?

A

harmless condition involving furrows/grooves on tongue surface

110
Q

What is geographic tongue? (migratory glossitis)

A

patterns of normal coating interspersed with bright red, shiny, circular bald areas

111
Q

What causes geographic tongue?

A

unknown

112
Q

What is glossitis?

A

inflamed tongue caused by low iron (anemia)

113
Q

With black hairy tongue what makes the “hair”?

A

elongation of filiform papillae and overgrowth of mycelial threads of fungal infection

114
Q

What causes black “hairy” tongue?

A

after antibiotic use that inhibit normal bacteria and allow fungus to grow

115
Q

What is macroglossia?

A

larger than typical size tongues

116
Q

What is bifid uvula?

A

a forked uvula

117
Q

What is oral kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

bruise-like, dark red, confluent macule on the hard palate often associated with AIDs

NURS 252 (6 decks)

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