Chapter 16: Practice Questions Flashcards
A nurse discovers a clients suicide note that details the time, place, and means to commit suicide. What should be the priority nursing action, and why?
1. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) prn, because the client is angry about plan exposure.
2. Establish room restrictions, because the clients threat is an attempt to manipulate the staff.
3. Place client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because specific plans likely lead to attempts.
4. Call an emergency treatment team meeting, because the clients threat must be addressed.
ANS: 3
Rationale: The priority nursing action should be to place this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide.
In planning care for a suicidal client, which correctly written outcome should be a nurses first priority?
1. The client will not physically harm self.
2. The client will express hope for the future by day three.
3. The client will establish a trusting relationship with the nurse.
4. The client will remain safe during hospital stay.
ANS: 4
Rationale: The nurses first priority should be that the client will remain safe during the hospital stay. Client safety should always be the nurses first priority. Outcomes should be client-centered, specific, realistic, measureable, and must also include a time frame.
A nurse administers 100% oxygen to a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy treatment (ECT). What is the rationale for this procedure?
1. To prevent increased intracranial pressure resulting from anoxia.
2. To prevent decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiration owing to electrical stimulation.
3. To prevent anoxia resulting from medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles.
4. To prevent blocked airway, resulting from seizure activity.
ANS: 3
Rationale: The nurse administers 100% oxygen during and after ECT to prevent anoxia resulting from medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles.
Immediately after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), in which position should a nurse place the client?
1. On his or her side, to prevent aspiration
2. In high Fowlers position, to prevent increased intracranial pressure
3. In Trendelenburgs position, to promote blood flow to vital organs
4. In prone position, to prevent airway blockage
ANS: 1
Rationale: The nurse should place a client who has received ECT on his or her side, to prevent aspiration.
A client is diagnosed with major depressive episode. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse assign to this client, to address a behavioral symptom of this disorder?
1. Altered communication R/T feelings of worthlessness AEB anhedonia
2. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room
3. Altered thought processes R/T hopelessness AEB persecutory delusions
4. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T high anxiety AEB anorexia
ANS: 2
Rationale: A nursing diagnosis of social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room addresses a behavioral symptom of major depressive episode. Other behavioral symptoms include psychomotor retardation, virtually nonexistent communication, curled-up position, and no attention to personal hygiene and grooming.
A client diagnosed with major depressive episode hears voices commanding self-harm. Which should be the nurses priority intervention at this time?
1. Obtaining an order for locked seclusion until client is no longer suicidal.
2. Conducting 15-minute checks to ensure safety.
3. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while continuing to monitor suicidal ideations.
4. Encouraging client to express feelings related to suicide.
ANS: 3
Rationale: The nurses priority intervention when a depressed client hears voices commanding self-harm is to place the client on one-to-one observation while continuing to monitor suicidal ideations. By providing one-to-one observation, the nurse will be able to interrupt any attempts at suicide.
A nurse assesses a client suspected of having the diagnosis of major depressive episode. Which client symptom would rule out this diagnosis?
1. The client is disheveled and malodorous.
2. The client refuses to interact with others and isolates self in room.
3. The client is unable to feel any pleasure.
4. The client has maxed-out charge cards and exhibits promiscuous behaviors.
ANS: 4
Rationale: The nurse should assess that a client who has maxed-out credit cards and exhibits promiscuous behavior is exhibiting signs of mania. The DSM-5 criteria state that there must never have been a manic episode or a hypomanic episode to meet the criteria for the diagnosis of major depressive episode.
A client with a history of suicide attempts has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for one month. The client suddenly presents with a bright affect, rates mood at 9 out of 10, and is much more communicative. Which action should be the nurses priority at this time?
1. Give the client off-unit privileges as positive reinforcement.
2. Encourage the client to share mood improvement in group.
3. Increase the level of this clients suicide precautions.
4. Request that the psychiatrist reevaluate the current medication protocol.
ANS: 3
Rationale: The nurse should be aware that a sudden increase in mood rating and change in affect could indicate that the client is at risk for suicide. Suicide risk may occur early during treatment with antidepressants. The return of energy may bring about an increased ability to act out self- destructive behavior.
A nurse reviews the laboratory data of a client suspected of having the diagnosis of major depressive episode. Which lab value would potentially rule out this diagnosis?
1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 25 U/mL
2. Potassium (K+) level of 4.2 mEq/L
3. Sodium (Na+) level of 140 mEq/L
4. Calcium (Ca2+) level of 9.5 mg/dL
ANS: 1
Rationale: A diagnosis of major depressive episode may be ruled out if the clients lab results reveal a TSH level of 25 U/mL. Normal levels of TSH range from 2 to 10 U/mL. High levels of TSH indicate low thyroid function. The clients high TSH value may indicate hypothyroidism, which can lead to depressive symptoms. The DSM-5 criteria for the diagnosis of major depressive episode states that this diagnosis must not be attributable to the direct physiological effects of another medical condition.
A depressed client reports to a nurse a history of divorce, job loss, family estrangement, and cocaine abuse. Which theoretical principle best explains the etiology of this clients depressive symptoms?
1. According to psychoanalytic theory, depression is a result of negative perceptions.
2. According to object-loss theory, depression is a result of overprotection.
3. According to learning theory, depression is a result of repeated failures.
4. According to cognitive theory, depression is a result of anger turned inward.
ANS: 3
Rationale: The nurse should assess that, according to learning theory, this clients depressive symptoms may have resulted from repeated failures. The learning theory is a model of learned helplessness in which multiple life failures cause the client to abandon future attempts to succeed.
What is the rationale for a nurse to perform a full physical health assessment on a client admitted with a diagnosis of major depressive episode?
1. The attention during the assessment is beneficial in decreasing social isolation.
2. Depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders.
3. Physical health complications are likely to arise from antidepressant therapy.
4. Depressed clients avoid addressing physical health and ignore medical problems.
ANS: 2
Rationale: The nurse should determine that a client with a diagnosis of major depressive episode needs a full physical health assessment, because depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders.
A nurse is planning care for a 13 -year-old who is experiencing depression. Which medication is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of depression in adolescents?
1. Paroxetine (Paxil)
2. Sertraline (Zoloft)
3. Citalopram (Celexa)
4. Escitalopram (Lexipro)
ANS: 4
Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been approved by the FDA to treat depression in children and adolescents, and escitalopram was approved in 2009 for treatment of depression in adolescents aged 12 to 17 years. All antidepressants carry an FDA warning for increased risk of suicide in children and adolescents.
A nurse admits an older client with memory loss, confused thinking, and apathy. A psychiatrist suspects a depressive disorder. What is the rationale for performing a mini-mental status exam?
1. To rule out bipolar disorder
2. To rule out schizophrenia
3. To rule out neurocognitive disorder
4. To rule out personality disorder
ANS: 3
Rationale: A mini-mental status exam should be performed to rule out neurocognitive disorder. The client may be experiencing reversible dementia, which can occur as a result of depression.
A nurse recently admitted a client to an inpatient unit after a suicide attempt. A health-care provider orders amitriptyline (Elavil) for the client. Which intervention, related to this medication, should be initiated to maintain this clients safety upon discharge?
1. Provide a 6-month supply of Elavil to ensure long-term compliance.
2. Provide a 1-week supply of Elavil, with refills contingent on follow-up appointments.
3. Provide pill dispenser as a memory aid.
4. Provide education regarding the avoidance of foods containing tyramine.
ANS: 2
Rationale: The health-care provider should provide no more than a 1-week supply of amitriptyline, with refills contingent on follow-up appointments, as an appropriate intervention to maintain the clients safety. Antidepressants, which are central nervous system depressants, can be used to commit suicide. Also these medications can precipitate suicidal thoughts during the initial use period. Limiting the amount of medication and monitoring the client weekly would be appropriate interventions to address the clients risk for suicide.
An older client has recently been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The clients spouse is taking paroxetine (Paxil). A nurse assesses that the client is experiencing restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and tremors. Which complication should a nurse suspect, and why?
1. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; caused by ingestion of two different seratonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
2. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; caused by ingestion of an SSRI and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
3. Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of an SSRI and an MAOI
4. Serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs
ANS: 4
Rationale: The nurse should suspect that the client is suffering from serotonin syndrome; possibly caused by ingesting two different SSRIs (sertraline and paroxetine). Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, abdominal pain, myoclonus, muscle rigidity, fever, sweating, and tremor.