Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

8th > Chapter 154- Gram Negative Coccal And Bacillary Infections > Flashcards

Chapter 154- Gram Negative Coccal And Bacillary Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Facultative intracellular Gram negative bacilli that parasitize erythrocytes due to their inability to synthesize (2)

A

Bartonella
Heme
Protoporphyrin X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Matching type

  1. Cat scratch disease
  2. Trench fever
  3. Bacillary angiomatosis
  4. Carrion disease

A. Bartonella henselae
B. Bartonella quintana
C. Bartonella bacilliformis

A

A
B
A B
C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Matching type

  1. Pediculus humanus
  2. Ctenocephalides felis
  3. Lutzomiya verrucarum

A. Bartonella henselae
B. Bartonella quintana
C. Bartonella bacilliformis

A

B
A
C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Carrion disease is a biphasic infection with (2) phases

A

Oroya fever

Verruga peruana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bartonella can be cultured in

A

5% rabbit/ sheep blood agar at 35- 37 C with 5-10% CO2

40% humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bartonella lipopolysaccharide is an antagonist of TLR

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Flagella of Bartonella bacilliformis is recognized by TLR5

True or False

A

False, not recognized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mechanism to elude both humoral and cellular immunity

A

Parasitizing host RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common Bartonella infection

A

Cat scratch disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CSD affects immunocompetent patients with median age of

A

15 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MC presenting sign of CSD

A

Lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Unilateral granulomatous conjunctivitis with ipsilateral preauricular and submandibular lymphadenopathy

A

Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

5 regional lymphadenopathy sites of CSD

A 
Axillary
Cervical
Inguinal
Epitrochlear
Preauricular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acute unilateral blurred vision resulting from optic nerve edema with an afferent pupullary defect

A

CSD neuroretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Large bulky lymphadenopathy of CSD is treated with

A

Azithromycin
Doxycycline
Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If hepatosplenic CSD, management is

A

Rifampicin +/- Gentamicin or TMP SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If ocular CSD, management is

A

Doxycycline + Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Classic patient of trench fever

A

Homeless, immunocompetent, alcoholic man with poor hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment of trench fever

A

28 days PO doxycycline + 14 days of IV gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MC site of disease of bacillary angiomatosis

A

Skin (55%- 90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Primary cause of liver, spleen, lymph node lesions in bacillary angiomatosis

A

B. Henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Primary cause of lesions in subQ and bone in bacillary angiomatosis

A

B. Quintana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Characteristic lesion of bacillary angiomatosis

A

Reddish purple, angiomatous purple 1 cm in diameter

24
Q

Triad of peliosis hepatitis

A

Abdominal pain
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly

25
Q

Most commonly affected bone in BA (2)

A

Radius or tibia

26
Q

In BA, CD4 counts of AIDS patients is

A

<100 cells/mm3

27
Q

Relapses are common especially if antibiotic has been given for less than

A

3 months

28
Q

Treatment for uncomplicated BA

A

Erythromycin
Doxycycline
For 3 months

29
Q

In severe cases of BA, treatment should include

A

Rifamycin + doxycyline, erythromycin

30
Q

For Bartonella endocarditis

A

Doxycyline + Gentamicin for 2 weeks

Substitute rifamycin in renal insufficiency

31
Q

20/80 rule is consistent with carrion disease, malaria, lesihmaniasis meaning

A

80% of disease in 20% of households

32
Q

Highest incidence of Carrion disease is in

A

Less than 5 years old

33
Q

Incidence of carrion disease is inversely proportional to age due to acquired immunity.
True or False

A

True

34
Q

Matching type

  1. Hemolytic anemia
  2. Eruptive angiomatous, verrucous nodules on head and distal extremities
  3. Acute bacteremia
  4. Increase opportunistic infections
  5. Intense angioblastic proliferation

A. Oroya
B. Verruga peruana

A 
A
B
A
A
B
35
Q

Blood cultures in Carrion disease are often collected during

A

Oroya phase

36
Q

Severe cases of Carrion disease are more likely to occur in natives.
True or False

A

False, travelers

37
Q

Managment of Oroya fever

A

14 day ciprofloxacin

+ chloramphenicol/ B lactam

38
Q

RBC should be transfused if Hct falls below

A

20%

39
Q

Treatment for verruga peruana

A

Rifampicin + IM streptomycin

40
Q

Classic cutaneous manifestation of typhoid fever

A

Rose spots (30%)

41
Q

Most common complications of enteric fever (3)

A 
Intestinal bleeding (MC)
Ileal perforation (most serious)
Encephalopathy
42
Q

Salmonella species differ by

A

O (somatic)

H (flagellar)

43
Q

Asymptomatic, blanching, erythematous, pale to pink papules on abdomen, chest, or back that fade in 3-5 days

A

Rose spots

44
Q

Constipation is common in children and HIV patients.

True or False

A

False, diarrhea

45
Q

At risk for chronic carrier state (3)

A

Women
Elderly
Cholelithiasis

46
Q

Strongest predictive factors for enteric fever (5)

A 
Rose spots
Relative bradycardia
Splenomegaly
Thrombocytopenia
Increase AST
47
Q

Management for salmonella

A

Ciprofloxacin
Ofloxacin
Azithromycin
Ceftriaxone (severe)

48
Q

Vaccines acailable for eneteric fever (2)

A

Ty21a

Vi polysaccharide vaccine

49
Q

Rare granulomatous disease affecting nose and URT

A

Rhinoscleroma

50
Q

3 phases of rhinoscleroma

A

Atrophic
Proliferative
Cicatricial

51
Q

Large vacuolated histiocytes containing K. Granulomatis

A

Mikulicz cells

52
Q

Mikulicz cells are stained with

A

CD68

53
Q

Commonly used treatment for rhinoscleroma

A

Tetracycline
Rifampicin
Ciprofloxacin
TMP-SMX

54
Q

Haemophilus influenzae requires

A

Hemin (Factor X)

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (Factor V)

55
Q

Unilateral facial swelling with violaceous hue in buccal or periorbital region in 3-24mos of age

A

HIB cellulitis

56
Q

Treatment for Hib (2)

A

Ceftriaxone

Cefotaxime

8th (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions