Chapter 150 - Superficial Cutaneous Infections and Pyodermas Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of superficial purulent skin infections

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Carriage of Staphylococcus aureus is found in up to ___% of healthy people

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Major commensal bacterium found on the surface of human skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Common sites of colonization of Staphylococcus aureus in carriers (6)

A
Inguinal region
Axilla
Perirectal skin
Nasal mucosa
Pharynx mucosa
Rectal mucosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Formation of small crateriform pits that coalesce to form a large discrete defect with serpiginous borders on the plantar surface on the foot

A

Pitted keratolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Etiologic agents of pitted keratolysis (3)

A

Kytococcus sedentarius
(Micrococcus sedentarius)
Dermatophilus congolensis
Corynebacterium sp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common complaint of pitted keratolysis

A

Sliminess of skin (70%)

Malodor (2/3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment for pitted keratolysis

A

Aluminum chloride 20% solution
BPO 5% gel
Topical clindamycin, erythromycin, miconazole, fucidic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Superficial bacterial infection characterized by well-defined irregular reddish brown patches in intertriginous areas or fissuring and white maceration in toe clefts between 4th-5th toes

A

Erythrasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Etiologic agent of erythrasma

A

Corynebacterium minutissum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Wood’s lamp of erythrasma reveals ____ fluorescence due to ____

A

Coral red; coprophyrin III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management of erythrasma

A

BPO 5% wash
Topical clindamycin, erythromycin
If widespread, oral erythromycin 250mgQID for 14 days
Or Clarithromycin 1g PO single dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bacterial infection of hair shaft that consist of tan, reddish, yellowish, or black concretions on surface of hair shaft

A

Trichobacteriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wood’s lamp of trichobacteriosis reveal a

A

Pale yellowish fluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of trichobacteriosis

A

Shaving
BPO 5% gel
Topical clindamycin/ erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pyogenes, Latin for

A

Pus generating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

After a group A Streptococcal infection, the ff may ensue (4)

A

Guttate psoriasis
Acute rheumatic fever
Rheumatic heart disease
Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Key virulence factor of GAS infection

A

M protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Streptococci group which causes impetigo, cellulitis, otitis in newborns

A

Group B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Intense perianal erythema with pain on defecation, blood streaked stools associated with anal fissure

A

Perianal group A streptococcal cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Large tense blister filled with seropurulent fluid on volar skin pad of distal fingers and toes with erythematous base

A

Blistering distal dactylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ddx of acute lymphangitis

A

UE: sporotrichosis
LE: superficial thrombophlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Poststreptococcal pharyngitis occurs ___ weeks ff GAS impetigo; occurs ____ weeks ff GAS pharyngitis

A

3-6 weeks

1-3 weeks

24
Q

Most common cause of acute nephritis in children

25
Acute rheumatic fever occurs ___ weeks after GAS pharyngitis
2 weeks
26
Symptoms of choreoathetosis, OCD, or tic disorder is associated with antecedent GAS infection
``` PANDAS Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders with Streptococcal Infection ```
27
Grps of streptococci implicated in impetiginous lesions, secondarily infected dermatitis, wound infections with lymphangitis
Grp C and Grp G
28
Grps of streptococci isolated from infections of skin lesions secondary to ischemia or venous stasis involving perineal area and operative wound sites
Grp B and Grp D
29
Grp of streptococci responsible for infections in meat handlers
Grp L
30
Pattern __ of emm gene are associated with pharyngitis; pattern ___ with skin infections; and pattern ___ with both
ABC D E
31
2 of key pore forming toxins
Streptolysin O | Streptolysin S
32
Produces large pores in host cell membranes leading to apoptosis of neutrophils, macrophages, and epithelial cells
Streptolysin O
33
Cytolytic activity against neutrophils, lymphocytes, RBCs, platelets leading to defective immune function
Streptolysin S
34
Key role in host defense against GAS skin infections
TLR9
35
Impt cell type in host defense against GAS and S aureus
Neutrophils
36
Titers used to detect GAS pharyngitis
Antistreptolysin O titers
37
Titers used to detect GAS skin infection
AntiDNAse B
38
Treatment for GAS skin infections
``` Pen V PO 25-45 mkday for 10 days Or Erythromycin 30-50mkday for 10 days Or Benazathine Pen G 1.2 M U IM Or Clindamycin 20-30mkday for 10 days ```
39
Used as secondary prophylaxis against recurrent GAS
Clindamycin 20-30mkday | Co-Amoxiclav 40mkday
40
Sites of colonization in neonates
Skin Umbilicus Circumcision Conjunctiva
41
Bullous impetigo cleaves ___ in the epidermis, resulting in clusters of thin roofed bulla, vesicles, and or pustules
Desmoglein 1
42
Secondary infection of miliaria of neonates by S. Aureus
Periporitis staphylogenes
43
Small fragile dome-shaped pustules at the infundibulum (ostium or opening) of a hair follicle often on the scalp of children, beard, axilla, extremities, and buttocks of adults
Follicular or Bockhart impetigo
44
Deep folliculitis with perifollicular inflammation occurring in the bearded areas of face and upper lip
Sycosis barbae
45
Deep chronic form of sycosis barbae associated with scarring occurring as a circinate lesion
Lupoid sycosis
46
Differential for staphylococcus aureus folliculits 1. Pseudofolliculitis barbae 2. Folliculitis keloidalis 3. Perifolliculitis capitis A. Scalp B. Nape C. Lower beard area
C B A
47
Difference of Staphylococcal folliculitis from dermatophyte folliculitis (3)
In fungal infections, 1. Hairs are broken and loosened 2. Presence of suppurative or granulomatous nodules than pustules 3. Painless plucking of hairs
48
Deep seated inflammatory nodule that develops around a hair follicle from a preceding superficial folliculitis and evolves into an abscess
Furuncle
49
More extensive, deeper, communicating, infiltrated, and serious inflammatory lesion
Carbuncle
50
CA- MRSA should be suspected in all patients with a skin abscess. True or False
True
51
Purulent, chronic, subQ infection with foregn trauma playing a role
Botryomycosis
52
Predisposing factors of botryomycosis (4)
Trauma Immunosuppression Chronic alcoholism DM
53
Purulent infection or abscess involving bulbous distal end of finger
Staphylococcal whitlow or felon
54
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (4)
36 < T> 38 Rr> 24 HR> 90 4,000 < WBC > 12,000
55
Risk factors for S. Aureus SSTIs (5)
1. Colonization of S. Aureus in mucosal sites (nares) 2. Preexisting tissue injury or inflammation 3. Immunodeficiency disorders (HIV/AIDS) 4. Condition with defective neutrophil number or function (CGD) 5. Patients with genetic or acquired IL17 responses