CHAPTER 14: BREAST RECONSTRUCTION Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the anatomy of the breast

A

Boundaries

  • 2nd - 6th rib
  • sternal edge
  • mid axillary line
  • deep superomedial = pec fascia, inferolateral = serratus fascia
  • axillary tail of Spence
  • 10-100 acini -> lobule -> lobe -> lactiferous duct -> nipple
  • lobes separated by fibrous septae, upper breast = suspensory ligaments of Astley Cooper
  • Montgomery’s tubercles = sebaceous glands under areolar

NAC

  • 4TH ics
  • sebaceous glands
  • montgomery glands
  • tubercles of Morgagni (elevations of gland openings)
  • radial smooth muscle fibres (erection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the blood supply to the breast?

A

Similar to blood supply to pec major

  • IMA perforators
  • lat thoracic
  • pectoral branches of thoracoacromial axis
  • anterolateral and medial intercostal perforators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the breast?

A

lateral -> axilla and infraclavicular
medial -> intercostal spaces to int thoracic parasternal nodes (3-20%)
cxns b/t med & lat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the nerve supply to the breast?

A

2nd - 6th intercostals
Nipple - 4th intercostal med & lat branches
Overlying skin - cutaneous branches T4-6, lat cutaneous
Lactation - hormonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the stages of breast development

A

Embryology - breast develops in 4th week as downgrowth from a thickened mammary ridge of ectoderm (milk line) from axilla to inguinal region

Tanner’s stages of pubertal breast dvlpmt
1 - prepubertal
5 - adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the surface anatomy of the breast

A

Penn - described the ideal breast measurements
Sternal -> nipple & nipple -> = 21cm
Nipple -> IMF = 6.8cm
NAC = 3.8 - 4.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is bra cup size measured?

A
Measure circumference of chest at IMF & maximal projection
MP - IMF = INCHES
0 = AA
1" = A
2" = B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Breast cancer epidemiology

A

30,000 new cases / yr in UK, 50% req mastectomy
~ 7500 breast recons / yr
50% under 65, 50% of these req mastectomy
2nd most common cancer after skin in women
1 in 8 lifetime risk (12%)
1 in 9 women who live to 85
Breast = 25% of general surgery referrals
90% breast clinic referrals are d/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the aetiology of breast cancer?

A

multifactorial, exo and endogenous factors

  • gender (99% women)
  • age
  • Fhx (no. and proximity), their menstrual status, age of diagnosis, bilat cancer
  • linked w early menarche, late menopause, late 1st pregnancy
  • premalignant histology
  • unilat ca -> inc risk of contralateral ca
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is breast cancer classified histologically?

A

DUCTAL - derive from ductal element (majority)
NON-DUCTAL - derive from epithelium of breast lobules

Non-invasive and invasive (WHO)
malignant transformation process
NORMAL -> HYPERPLASIA ->ATYPICAL HYPERPLASIA -> DCIS -> INVASIVE CA -> takes 10-20yrs
80% adenocarcinoma (males?)
risk of mets increases with no. of +ve nodes, to lung, liver, bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What types of ductal ca’s are there?

What types of non-ductal ca’s are there?

A

DCIS (intraductal ca - still in bm of ducts)

  • subtypes - comedo, non-comedo
  • 10% bilat, 20% multicentric, 30%->invasive
  • mammogram - microcalcification

Invasive ductal

  • 75% of all breast ca
  • adenoca of ductal elements
  • grey gritty spiculated hard

LCIS

  • no mammogram changes, marker of invasive disease, not precursor (1% -> invasive)
  • usu incidental finding
  • 40% bilateral, 60% multifocal

Invasive lobular

  • 5-10% invasive ca
  • extensively infiltrative /o distinct mass
  • no microcalcification
  • sim prognosis to inv ductal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the special types of breast ca?

A

Medullary ca

  • 6% of invasive ca
  • soft fleshy well circumscribed
  • good prognosis even w mets

Tubular ca

  • 2%, = well diff adenoca
  • well diff, good prog

Mucinous / Colloid

  • < 5%
  • soft gel mass
  • well diff, excellent prog

Phyllodes
- mixed CT and epithelial tumour
90% 5yr survival, depends on grade and size of tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the breast cancer genes?

A

4-5% of all breast ca’s are inherited
AD with high penetrance
>25% of cases under 30y.o. = genetic
> 4 cases under 60 in family = likely genetic
BRCA1 lifetime risk of breast ca = 85%
50% BRCA1 carriers with ca treated by lumpectomy and DXT will develop recurrence / 2nd ca
BRCA 65% risk of ovarian ca by 70
Histo - usu grade 3, ER-ve, medullary type, early onset, bilat
TP53 assoc w sarcoma
BRCA 2 less

Ashkenazi Jews - 2% have BRCA 1/2 mutn

Carriers offered

(a) SSM and recon (risk reducing mastectomy)
- only 90% effective in reducing risk of ca
(b) annual screening
(c) prophylactic tamoxifen - usu not helpful as most are ER-ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is a breast lump assessed?

A

Risk assessment - age, FHx, endogenous oestrogen
Triple assessment - clinical exam, radiology, pathology
MDT discussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

UK Breast screening

A
  • women b/t 50-70, gradually 47-73 (2016)
  • identifies 6/1000 screened
  • MRI better for premenopausal women, BRCA pts
    USS (for solid vs cystic)
  • High res USS can identify some cancers and for DXT chemo response
  • MRI for implant imaging
  • linguine sign (implant pulled away from capsule, leaving multiple parallel lines = stepladder sign)
  • snowstorm appearance
  • Eklund mammogram views for breast implants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of mammograms?

A
  • part of NHSBSP
  • women every 2-3yrs
  • US every yr above 40
  • signs - microcalcifcation, density changes, asymmetry , architectural distortion
  • Swedish trials - decreased 44% mortality w reg mammogram
  • BC f/u - annual mammogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Staging of breast cancer

A
TNM Staging & 5yr survival (%)
I : <2cm T1 (85%)
II : mobile axillary nodes N1 (65%)
IIIa : fixed axillary nodes N2 (40%)
IIIb : chest wall / skin involvement T4 or int mammary nodes N3 (25%)
IV : distant mets M1 (10%)
Stage 
I Early good prog
II good prog
III  locally advanced, poor
inflammatory BC (III)

TNM staging, Nottingham Prognostic Index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the goals of treatment?

A
  • optiimise local control
  • accurate staging
  • longterm survival
  • preserve / restore body form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is breast conservation surgery considered?

Name a trial supporting this.

A

stage 1-2 disease
contraindicated - multiple lesions, diffuse microcalcification
relative contra - small breast + large ca, radiation induced, ongoing pregnancy

NSABP B06 trial
no diff in survival b/t total mastectomy vs lumpectomy vs lumpectomy and DXT

Current Rx - lumpectomy with -ve margins, DXT, ANS / clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BCS - quadrantectomy. How do you reconstruct?

A

usu for T2 tumours
circumareolar orientated mobilisation of breast mound and direct closure of overlying skin
thoraco-epigastic flaps for skin following lower quadrant resection
axillary tail transposition flap for upper outer quadrant
wise pattern reduction
symmetrisizing contralateral breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the follow-up for breast ca?

A

Postop 3mths (check arm mobility)
6mthly 2yrs
annual 4yrs +/- d/c 6yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Classify the different types of mastectomy

A
  1. subcutaneous (NAC preserved)
  2. skin sparing (NAC excised)
    - preserves native breast skin & IMF
    - indications: prophylaxis, DCIS,stage 1-2 invasive ca, phyllodes, immediate recon
  3. simple (total)
    - stage 3-4
    - remove entire breast, NAC and skin overlying tumour
  4. modified radical
    - simple mast + ax level 1&2 clearance
  5. risk reducing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the indications of risk reducing mastectomy?

A
Hi risk women (>25% lifetime risk)
BRCA 1,2 gene mutation carriers
- contralateral RRM (depends on histo)
- 2 relatives, 1 <60
- 90% risk reduction
- upper outer quadrant - highest risk of recurrence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is management of the axilla in breast ca?

A

ax LN clearance / sampling
DXT if +ve nodes
prognosis= 90% 5yr with -ve nodes, 60% 1 +ve LN
sentinel LNB
25% clinically normal LN have micromets
Level of dissection - I,II,III (pec minor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for DCIS?

A
local recurrence
- after surgical excision only ~ 30% (50% will become invasive)
NHSBP B17 (Fisher 1993)
- lump only 16% local recurrence
- lump + DXT 7% 
extensive DCIS => SSM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What systemic therapies are there for breast ca?

A

increase disease free survival in premeno
CMF C, methotrexate, 5FU
FAC - 5FU, A, C
AC - doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide

Receptors
ER/PR TAMOXIFEN / LETROZOLE (postmeno)
HER2 (Human epidermal growth factor 2) HERCEPTIN
triple -ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the role of neo-adjuvant therapy?

A

neo-adjuvant chemo may downstage tumour size, and allow BCS, but no survival advantage
DXT usu postop

28
Q

How does radiotherapy work?

A

High energy X rays damage tumour cells, whilst normal cells recover b/t cycles
eradicate remaining ca cells and reduce local recurrence
uses
- following lumpectomy
- following mastectomy
- following ALND (NOT clearance - inc lymph oedema)
- neoadjuvant

29
Q

What are the side effects of DXT?

A

Common
- skin rxns: red, hyperpigment, tender, itch, blister
- aches, shooting pain
- tired
Uncommon
- lung tissue inflammation (dry cough, SOB)
- dec appetite, nausea
- axillary hardening, fibrosis, lymphoedema
Rare
- fibrosis, decrease breast size, telangectasia, fracture, parasthesia

30
Q

What and how do breast cancer drugs work?

A
Oestrogen receptor antagonists
aromatase inhibitors (Arimidex, Femara)
- blocks androgen to estrogen conversion
- should NOT be used premeno (doesnt inhibit ovarian estrogen synthesis
gonadorelin analogues (Zoladex - goserelin)
cytotoxic chemo
trastuzumab (Herceptin)
Progestogens
Retinoids
31
Q

How do you classify breast reconstruction?

A
immediate vs delayed
oncoplastic
expander implant
flap and expander implant
flap only
32
Q

What are the principles of breast reconstruction?

A

choice based on

  • patient
  • cancer and adjuvant Rx (DXT)
  • contralateral breast size
  • availability of autologous tissue

Questions to ask

  • does pt want good match only in bra or in & out of bra?
  • match contralateral breast to recon or recon to c/l breast?
  • does c/l breast need symmetrisation? if pt doesn’t want c/l breast op, abdo flap can create any shape / ptosis
33
Q

What are the principles of breast conservation surgery & oncoplastics?

A

better sited scars
primary recon of defects
- e.g. SSM and immediate recon, or BBR & mastopexy techniques to resect tumour (BCS)

BCS
lower pole - superior pedicle Wise
medial - dermoglandular flap of lat breast tissue with Wise incision
central upper - upside down keyhole

Therapeutic mammaplasty (McCulley, Nottingham)

  • use mammoplasty techniques post WLE to avoid contour defects
  • can use more than 1 pedicle
34
Q

What are the principles of expander implant recon?

A

suitable for reconstructing small non-irradiated breasts
chest wall DXT increases capsular contracture, skin less pliable and doesn’t expand, increased risk of wound dehiscence
tissue expander
- round if small, anatomical for more projection if larger
- subpectoral +/- ADM lower pole
- base at or lower than contralateral IMF
- avoid making pocket too high
- overexpand, to create ptosis

35
Q

What is a Becker expander implant?

A

it consists of an outer layer of low-bleed silicone gel (25=25% gel, 50=50%), with inner cavity for saline expansion. smooth or textured
- expansion through remote port, which may be removed or expander may be replaced for permanent impact

36
Q

Expander and flap recon - pros and cons

A

indication - if implant only or autologous not suitable
Pros - easy, reliable, well vascularised tissue (post DXT) low complications
Cons - still requires implant, donor scar poor
Can do extended LD for more volume

37
Q

How do you classify flap only breast recon?

A

Pedicled vs free

38
Q

Pedicled TRAM

A

Described by Holstrom 1979, then Hartrampf 1982 (transverse abdo island flap
pedicle = superior epigastrics
can be supercharged (IMA, thoracodorsal)
turbocharge - link R & L DIEP art and vein
fat necrosis 7-16%
endoscopic delay - ligate DIEA

39
Q

Free TRAM

A
IMA
thoracodorsal (end to end circumflex scapular or thoracodorsal above serratus branch to preserve LD (retrograde flow from intercostal supply to serratus)

contraindicated - midline scar, liposuction, prev abdominoplasty

40
Q

Who described the zones of a TRAM flap?

A
Hartrampf
I ipsilateral medial
II contralateral medial
III ipsilateral lateral
IV contralateral lateral
Holme (2006) - true zones
I ipsilateral medial
II ipsilateral lateral
III contralateral medial
IV contralateral lateral
41
Q

DIEP flap

A

most perforators around umbo
lat perforators dominant - 55%
med 18%
single medial row 27%

42
Q

Who described IMA & V for free flap breast recon?

A

Ninkovic 1995
Arnez BJPS 1995

shorter pedicle needed
remove 3rd / 4th costal cartilage
>80% TRAMS ipsilateral
advantages cf thoracodorsal - spares LD, better positioning, zone IV lateral not medial, avoids lymphoedema risk
disadvantages - iatrogenic pneumothorax, resp mvmts during anastomosis

43
Q

What paper looked at abdo scars and TRAM flaps?

A

Takeishi PRS 1997
Pfannenstiel - investigate (may or may not be divided)
lower paramedian - vessels divided
lower midline - design flap higher (means transverse abdo scar postop)
subcostal - free flap ok based on inf epigastric
appendix

44
Q

Who described DIEP flap

A

Bob Allen 1994
abdo skin and sc tissues based on 1-2 perforators from DIEA
intermuscular dissection, DIEA passed through muscle split
preserve horizontal nerve
flaps can be made sensate
must discard zone IV

Blondeel 1999 100 free DIEPs
no need to go down to ext iliac if IMA/V
raise pedicle side 1st, leave other as lifeboat
ipsilat ->IMV, contralat -> thoracodorsal
vac anatomy
- lat br of DIEP connected to perfs = 50%
- med & lat branches equal = 15%
- 1 common vessel - 30%

open up fascia widely
99% success
7% fat necrosis
<1% donor bulging
turbocharge with SIEV in 8%
44
Q

What paper advocates preop angio for DIEP flap?

A

Masia JPRAS

45
Q

What is the risk of hernia in DIEP and TRAM?

A

Free TRAM 16%hernia, 14%bulge PRS 2008 Ganem

DIEP <1%, 9%

46
Q

S-GAP flap

A

Bob Allen 1995
dissect perforator through gluteus maximus to sup gluteal artery
skin 29x3cm
5-8cm pedicle
can make sensate with dorsal br of lumbar segmental to 4th intercostal
adv - if DIEP not possible
single perforator, hidden scar, no loss of function, sciatic nerve covered by muscle
disadv - fat firmer, scar unsightly, short perforator

47
Q

I-GAP flap

A
  • adv: scar in crease, larger than SGAP
  • perforators on both sides of sciatic n
    pedicle 8cm
  • dissect from greater trochanter then medially
48
Q

Rubens flap

A
Hartrampf 1991 (based on Iliac crest flap (Taylors)
deep circumflex iliac vessels
long consistent pedicle
need to carefully repair muscles of donor site
49
Q

Lateral transverse thigh flap

A

TFL muscle on lat circumflex femoral

donor contour defect

50
Q

Superficial inferior epigastric flap

A

Arnez
vessels are v small
quick to raise but longer micro
artery present in 10%?

51
Q

TMG / TUG flap recon

A

Transverse myocutaneous gracilis flap
perforators in upper 1/3
up to 30cm long (add longus to inf gluteal fold, 10cm wide
can be used for augmentation post bariatric, combined with thigh lift
can turbo/supercharge using long saphenous

52
Q

Fat injection

A

for adjustments
massive vol / definitive recon
controvery calcification may complicate imaging
Cytori system - lipoaspirate mixed with stem cells (fat grafting on to expanders prior to definitive implant - fat graft programming. Calabresi and Urena)

53
Q

Anatomy of the nipple

A

nipple contains ductal cells therefore must be removed
areolar is skin appendage & doesn’t require resection unless within margins
central on breast mound
35-45mm diameter
at or just above IMF level

54
Q

What are the goals of nipple recon

A

position, symmetry, colour, size, projection, ?sensitivity
if marked asymmetry - place on pt of max projection
ask pt to wear prosthesis / position ECG dot on day of surgery

55
Q

Describe the different ways of nipple recon

A
Nipple graft (Adams 1944)
nipple sharing (Millard 1972)
- lower 1/2 or tip sutured into minimally de-epithelialised bed
other composite grafts
- ear lobe
- toe pulp
- papillomas!
56
Q

Name some local flap nipple recons

A

dermal fat flap (Hartrampf and Culbertson 1984)
skate flap (Little, Adv Plas Surg 1987)
star flap Anton, Eskenazi and Hartrampf 1991)
fish tail McCraw 1992
CV flap (Bostwick 1998)
Bell flap (Eng 1996)

57
Q

Other autologous / allogenic nipple recon

A

cartilage (rib), n=bone, silicone (tends to extrude)

58
Q

Nipple recon

A

Draw
CV flap
Skate

Stick on
Tattoo only
Autologous

59
Q

What are the common indications for skin sparing mastectomy?

A
  • prophylactic mastectomy
  • stage 1-2 invasive breast ca (although BCS and DXT is also adequate Rx)
  • DCIS
  • multicentric tumours
  • Phyllodes tumour
  • where immediate recon is planned
60
Q

What is the treatment algorithm for breast recon?

A

SMALL
Expander implant
LD with implant
Extended LD

MEDIUM
Expander implant
LD with implant
free flap

LARGE
free flap (bipedicled DIEP / TRAM)

Contralateral breast reduction

61
Q

What are the pros and cons of immediate and delayed breast recon

A
Immediate
Pros
- 1 main op
- more aesthetic
- less psychological trauma
- cheaper

Delayed

  • loss of native skin envelope and IMF
  • requires dissection of previously operated / irradiated tissues
62
Q

What was the NICE guidelines for ‘Improving breast cancer care’

A
  • all breast cancer patients should be managed by multi-disciplinary teams
  • breast reconstruction should be available at the initial surgical operation
  • breast cancer referrals should only be made to units which deal with at least 100 new cases per year
  • there should be regular network-level audits of service provision and the outcomes attained, including an assessment of patients’ and carers’ experiences.
63
Q

What is the National Mastectomy and Breast Reconstruction Audit?

A
  • described provision of and access to breast reconstruction in England and Wales
  • evaluated current clinical practice in mastectomy and breast reconstruction
  • measured outcomes following mastectomy with or without reconstruction
  • assessed the quality of information provided to women undergoing mastectomy and their satisfaction with the reconstructive choices made.
64
Q

National Breast Mastectomy and Reconstruction Audit
2008
2009

A

Looked at primarily

18216 women
150 NHS hospitals, 114 independent
1 in 5pts immediate, 1 in 10 had delayed recon

2008
Although overall satisfaction rates of pts are high, there is inequity in availability of IBR, likely due to waiting list targets and providing op for BC pts within 31 days of diagnosis

2009
Pts for IBR increased from 11% 2005-2006 to 21% in 2008-2009
There was a wide variation b/t breast cancer networks, suggesting IBR is more widely available in some BCNs than others

65
Q

NBMRA
2010
2011

A

2010
local complication
- 10% mastectomy only (1 in 5 antibiotics)
- 15-18% recon gp (1 in 4 had abx)

Implant loss at 3 months following BR
9% of IBR patients
7% of DBR patients

Unplanned return to theatre following BR
5% of IBR and
6% of DBR patients

Free flap BR who had an unplanned return to theatre
13% of IBR and
11% of DBR patients

Unplanned re-admission within 3 months
9% of mastectomy patients,
16% of IBR patients and
14% of DBR patients

2011
Mastectomy only
83% satisfied with appearance clothed
42% unclothed
75% confident in social setting
10% pain in breast area
12% arm pain
41% satisfied with sex life
Immediate, delayed breast recon
90    93
59    76
85     92
7       4
8       9
52     60