CHAPTER 12: Group Processes and Work Teams Flashcards

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1
Q

A collection of people is NOT a group unless the people:

A)share a common goal.
B)share descriptive or prescriptive norms.
C)are in close proximity to one another.
D)discuss cohesion.

A

A)share a common goal.

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2
Q

The TLC Company has established a Rewards Committee that meets every month to determine the “Employee of the Month.” The Rewards Committee represents a(n):

A)service team.
B)asset team.
C)informal group.
D)formal group.

A

D)formal group.

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3
Q

Dean, Janice, and Svetlana, who are all going through the same training program, often meet together for lunch to study their training materials together. In this case, they represent a(n):

A)objective team.
B)line team.
C)informal group.
D)formal group.

A

C)informal group.

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4
Q

Which of these is a function that informal groups serve?

A) satisfying employees’ social needs
B)satisfying employees’ monetary needs
C)satisfying employees’ self-actualization needs
D)facilitating isolation among employees

A

A) satisfying employees’ social needs

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5
Q

_____ are shared expectations about appropriate ways of responding in a group.

A)Norms
B)Roles
C)Duties
D)Cohesions

A

A)Norms

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6
Q

Which type of norm suggests what people should do, feel, or think in a particular situation?

A)informal
B)formal
C)prescriptive
D)descriptive

A

D)descriptive

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7
Q

_____ norms are those that define what most people do, feel, or thinkin a particular situation.

A)Informal
B)Formal
C)Prescriptive
D)Descriptive

A

D)Descriptive

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8
Q

Everyone in Danika’s office dresses professionally. When Danika arrives at work one day dressed in jeans, she is scolded by her boss and peers. In this case, professional dress is likely a _____ norm.

A)prescriptive
B)descriptive
C)formal
D)informal

A

A)prescriptive

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9
Q

Juanita notices that people in her group get their lunch from the cafeteria rather than bring their own lunch. When Juanita brings her own lunch, her coworkers notice it but don’t seem too concerned about it. In this case, getting lunch at the cafeteria is a _____ norm.

A)prescriptive
B)descriptive
C)formal
D)informal

A

B)descriptive

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10
Q

Which statement about group norms is true?

A)New employees generally change group norms.
B)New employees tend to ignore group norms.
C)Norms develop very rapidly in groups.
D)Group norms are passed down by more experienced employees.

A

D)Group norms are passed down by more experienced employees.

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11
Q

According to Kurt Lewin, behavior is a function of:

A)roles and norms.
B)cohesion and group development.
C)the person and the environment.
D)the person and the organization.

A

C)the person and the environment.

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12
Q

Susan, a sales manager, believes she should accompany her sales representatives on sales calls. Curtis, who is also a sales manager, does not believe he should accompany sales representatives because he believes his sales representatives can handle clients on their own. Susan and Curtis have different ____ for being sales managers.

A)role differentiation
B)role concepts
C)equilibrium
D)valence

A

B)role concepts

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13
Q

A ____ is a set of behaviors expected of a person who occupies a particular position in a group.

A)habit
B)role
C)duty
D)mental model

A

B)role

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14
Q

_____ is the process by which a group or organization establishes distinct roles for various members of a group.

A)Role differentiation
B)Role identification
C)Role self-management
D)Role conflict

A

A)Role differentiation

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15
Q

Nancy works in a group whose members are highly motivated to stay together. All members are willing to put aside their individual goals in order to see the group succeed. Nancy’s group is best described as having a high level of:

A)differentiation.
B)cohesion.
C)descriptive norms.
D)moral development.

A

B)cohesion.

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16
Q

Which statement represents an accurate research finding on group cohesion?

A)Cohesiveness and performance are positively related.
B)Cohesiveness and performance are negatively related.
C)Members of cohesive groups tend to have high anxiety.
D)Members of cohesive groups tend to have low job satisfaction.

A

A)Cohesiveness and performance are positively related

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17
Q

in which of these is a stage in Tuckman’s (1965) model of group development?

A)adjourning.
B)informing.
C)swarming.
D)conforming.

A

A)adjourning.

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18
Q

In a recently created group, group members are getting to know about one another and are on their best behavior. This group is most likely in the _____ stage of group development.

A)performing
B)norming
C)forming
D)storming

A

C)forming

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19
Q

In a group that was recently created, group members are beginning to disagree with one another and are not always on their best behavior. This group is most likely in the _____ stage of group development.

A)performing
B)adjourning
C)storming
D)annoying

A

C)storming

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20
Q

During the _____ stage of group development, group members become more cohesive and establish unity among themselves.

A)performing
B)norming
C)adjourning
D)forming

A

B)norming

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21
Q

In a well-established group, members know and understand one another well, and they accomplish a great deal of work together. This group is most likely in the ____ stage of group development.

A)norming
B)informing
C)performing
D)doing

A

C)performing

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22
Q

In a somewhat new group, members are settling into their roles and feel connected to one another. The group is most likely in the _____ stage of group development.

A)forming
B)norming
C)adjourning
D)storming

A

B)norming

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23
Q

In a group that has been in existence for quite some time, group members are beginning to leave to work on other projects. In this example, the group is most likely in the ____ stage of group development.

A)dissolving
B)storming
C)coining
D)adjourning

A

D)adjourning

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24
Q

In group development, the main difference between the stage model and the punctuated equilibrium model is:

A)whether groups go through the stages in a linear fashion.
B)the extent to which group formation is explained.
C)the manner in which conflict is established.
D)the level of moral development reached by group members.

A

A)whether groups go through the stages in a linear fashion.

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25
Q

According to _____, groups go through separate, orderly phases in their development; according to _____, groups oscillate between several phases, or may be in several phases at once.

A)Tuckman’s stage model; punctuated equilibrium
B)punctuated equilibrium; Tuckman’s stage model
C)storming; norming
D)norming; storming

A

A)Tuckman’s stage model; punctuated equilibrium

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26
Q

_____ is the reduction in individual effort that occurs when people work in groups instead of alone.

A)Role differentiation
B)Groupthink
C)Social loafing
D)Mindguard

A

C)Social loafing

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27
Q

Professor Julliard has a group project in her class, and she is concerned about social loafing. Which of these is the BEST piece of advice for preventing social loafing from happening?

A) Ensure that the project is boring and uninteresting.
B) Ask each student to clearly identify what he or she contributed.
C) Require groups to complete a weekly progress report.
D) Assign groups such that each group has one A student and one C student in it.

A

B) Ask each student to clearly identify what he or she contributed.

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28
Q

According to Zaccaro (1984), which of these leads to less social loafing?

A)attractive tasks
B)low motivation
C)low collectivism
D)disparate norms

A

A)attractive tasks

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29
Q

Kerri is a member of a work group of graphic designers who have been asked to design a billboard. She thinks that the billboard is effectively being completed by others and that her efforts are not necessary. Kerri is engaged in:

A)social enhancement.
B)social compensation.
C)groupthink.
D)free riding.

A

D)free riding.

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30
Q

Katrina and four other students have been assigned to work as a group on a class project. Midway through the project, Katrina realizes she is the only one working and decides not to put forth any more effort. This outcome is called:

A)free riding.
B)the sucker effect.
C)social enhancement.
D)social loafing.

A

D)social loafing.

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31
Q

Deniz realizes that her group members are doing very little work on a project, so she increases her efforts to get the job done. This outcome is called:

A)the sucker effect.
B)social enhancement.
C)social compensation.
D)social loafing.

A

C)social compensation.

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32
Q

In group decision-making, the point at which group members come to agree on the nature of the issue and the goals of their group is known as:

A)forming.
B)generating solutions.
C)diagnosing the problem.
D)evaluating solutions.

A

C)diagnosing the problem.

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33
Q

Brainstorming often occurs in the phase of decision-making known as:

A)diagnosing the problem
B)evaluating solutions
C)implementing a solution
D)generating solutions

A

D)generating solutions

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34
Q

Which of these reduces the effectiveness of brainstorming?

A)group members sharing their ideas whenever they want

B)group members waiting for their turn to share their ideas

C)group members having confidence in their ability to voice concerns to the group

D)group members placing their need to generate viable solutions above self-interests

A

B)group members waiting for their turn to share their ideas

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35
Q

One way to improve brainstorming is to use a software that allows group members to type in their ideas and share them anonymously. This is known as:

A)techno-storming.
B)electronic brainstorming.
C)virtual brainstorming.
D)chainstorming.

A

B)electronic brainstorming.

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36
Q

The recent development of “electronic brainstorming” reduces:

A)production blocking.
B)the availability of other members’ ideas during brainstorming.
C)the number of ideas generated by individuals.
D)the anonymity of individuals’ responses.

A

A)production blocking.

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37
Q

Which of these is NOT a common approach to choosing a solution in group decision-making?

A)delegating
B)coercion
C)minority rule
D)mindguarding

A

D)mindguarding

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38
Q

When a group develops methods for monitoring and evaluating progress towards a solution, the group has reached the _____ stage of the decision-making process.

A)choosing solutions
B)evaluating solutions
C)diagnosing problems
D)developing an action plan and implementation

A

D)developing an action plan and implementation

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39
Q

Galenia’s team generates solutions and then provides information about each solution to the chairperson, who ultimately makes the decision. In this case, Galenia’s group is using which process of decision-making?

A)averaging
B)majority rule
C)consensus
D)delegating

A

D)delegating

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40
Q

Habib’s team does not select a solution until everyone in the group agrees on the best solution. In this case, Habib’s team is using which process of decision-making?

A)averaging
B)majority rule
C)consensus
D)delegating

A

C)consensus

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41
Q

Qasim is finding that a group project is taking a lot of time because his team members do not communicate well or share information, and they have difficulty finding meeting times that work for everyone. This is an example of:

A)process loss.
B)groupthink.
C)mindguard.
D)cohesion.

A

A)process loss.

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42
Q

Any nonmotivational element of a group situation that detracts from a group’s performance is known as:

A)loafing.
B)process loss.
C)groupthink.
D)mindguard.

A

B)process loss.

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43
Q

According to research on group decision-making, groups are NOT particularly effective at:

A)pooling unshared information.
B)coordinating shared information.
C)making decisions based on shared information.
D)avoiding groupthink.

A

A)pooling unshared information.

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44
Q

When a cohesive group’s desire to agree becomes so dominant that it overrides realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action, the result is a mode of thinking known as:

A)groupthink.
B)mindguard.
C)social loafing.
D)free riding.

A

A)groupthink.

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45
Q

Hyria, who is part of a workgroup, feels very connected to her coworkers, but she is concerned about a decision they are making. She is afraid to speak up, however, because in the past, dissenters were pressured into going along with the group consensus. Hyria’s group is likely engaging in:

A)mindguard.
B)free riding.
C)groupthink.
D)descriptive norming.

A

C)groupthink.

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46
Q

Which of these is an antecedent of groupthink?

A)group cohesion
B)unbiased leadership
C)low decisional stress
D)appointment of a devil’s advocate

A

A)group cohesion

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47
Q

_____ is a symptom of groupthink.

A)High decisional stress
B)Strong, biased leadership
C)Pressure on dissenters
D)Group isolation

A

C)Pressure on dissenters

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48
Q

_____ is an antecedent of groupthink, while _____ is a symptom of group think.

A)Brainstorming; high decisional stress
B)Cohesion; appointment of a mindguard
C)Appointment of a mindguard; cohesion
D)High decisional stress; brainstorming

A

B)Cohesion; appointment of a mindguard

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49
Q

Professor McNeeley has a group project in his class, and he is concerned about social loafing. Which of these is the BEST piece of advice for preventing social loafing from happening?

A)Provide bonus points for the group of students with the best project.
B)Ask the groups to have weekly meetings.
C)Make tasks interdependent.
D)Designate one student as the “leader.”

A

C)Make tasks interdependent.

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50
Q

_____ are groups in which the actions of individuals are interdependent, individuals hold a specific role, and common goals are shared across the group.

A)Work teams
B)Work units
C)Business units
D)Cliques

A

A)Work teams

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51
Q

A(n) _____ is an organized knowledge structure that enhances the interaction of an individual with his or her environment.

A)situational schema
B)environmental construct
C)mental model
D)context taxonomy

A

C)mental model

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52
Q

Niamh is a nurse on a surgery team. The surgeon often doesn’t need to tell her what to do-she knows her team so well that she can anticipate what they require her to do next. We might say that Niamh’s team has an effective:

A)groupthink.
B)mindguard.
C)shared mental model.
D)conjoined work schema.

A

C)shared mental model.

53
Q

In which group would a shared mental model be MOST important?

A)administrative assistants at an insurance company
B)medical personnel on a team in an emergency room
C)clerks in an electronics store
D)executive coaches in a consulting office

A

B)medical personnel on a team in an emergency room

54
Q

Mary, Alex, Lou, and Michelle work as a group on a daily basis to make computer chips in a manufacturing plant. They are an example of a _____ team.

A)project
B)service
C)production
D)management

A

C)production

55
Q

A chief executive officer (CEO), a chief financial officer (CFO), and a chief information officer (CIO) may be considered parts of a(n):

A)advisory team.
B)service team.
C)production team.
D)management team.

A

D)management team.

56
Q

A group consisting of engineers, maintenance workers, and mathematicians is brought together to solve a problem with a nuclear reactor. Once the reactor is repaired and operational, they will return to work in their respective departments. This group represents a:

A)production team.
B)service team.
C)project team.
D)management team.

A

C)project team.

57
Q

Cross-functional teams often are also:

A)parallel teams.
B)project teams.
C)service teams.
D)production teams.

A

B)project teams.

58
Q

A team whose task is to keep a college president informed about all areas of the college would be a(n):

A)production team.
B)service team.
C)management team.
D)advisory team.

A

D)advisory team.

59
Q

A team that assumes complete responsibility for monitoring and controlling the overall work process, as well as for assigning specific tasks to team members, is known as a:

A)cross-functional team.
B)self-managed work team.
C)superordinate team.
D)consulting team.

A

B)self-managed work team.

60
Q

In the 1980s, about _____ of organizations used work teams; in 1999, _____ of organizations used work teams.

A)5%; 72%
B)25%; 57%
C)10%; 91%
D)50%; 99%

A

A)5%; 72%

61
Q

Recently, companies have required that teams be flexible and independent, so they could help the organization get to know itself and plan for its future. This is known as the _____ approach.

A)command-and-control
B)employee-advisor
C)worker-as-historian
D)sense-making

A

D)sense-making

62
Q

Which of these is one of Cohen’s dimensions of work-team effectiveness?

A)proactive assessment
B)withdrawal behaviors
C)authoritarianism
D)group composition

A

B)withdrawal behaviors

63
Q

In terms of work-team effectiveness, _____ involves job-duty aspects of the work, while _____ involves process-oriented aspects of work.

A)structure; consideration
B)consideration; structure
C)taskwork; teamwork
D)teamwork; taskwork

A

C)taskwork; teamwork

64
Q

Teams with _____ variability on conscientiousness and _____ variability on extraversion tend to be the most effective.

A)high; high
B)low; low
C)high; low
D)low; high

A

D)low; high

65
Q

Teams with high variability on _____ and low variability on _____ tend to be the most effective.

A)neuroticism; openness
B)extraversion; conscientiousness
C)agreeableness; emotional stability
D)conscientiousness; agreeableness

A

B)extraversion; conscientiousness

66
Q

Which of these is considered a predictor of team effectiveness?

A)group composition
B)individual work design
C)intragroup conflict
D)group politics

A

A)group composition

67
Q

Whether a team member will perform backup behaviors depends greatly on the _____ of both the helper and the recipient of help.

A)cognitive abilities
B)personalities
C)duties
D)norms

A

B)personalities

68
Q

Research indicates that individuals high in _____ tend to secure more backup behaviors from other team members.

A)agreeableness
B)neuroticism
C)extraversion
D)openness

A

C)extraversion

69
Q

Research indicates that individuals high in _____ tend to provide more backup to team members, whether they need it or not.

A)conscientiousness
B)agreeableness
C)neuroticism
D)extraversion

A

D)extraversion

70
Q

According to research, teams will function best if all teammates have high levels of:

A)neuroticism.
B)openness to experience.
C)conscientiousness.
D)extraversion.

A

D)extraversion.

71
Q

Lenny wants to measure conflict resolution, collaborative problem solving, and communication in order to select members for a team. Lenny should implement the:

A)Teamwork Test.
B)Team Member Test.
C)Big Five Personality Test.
D)Myers-Briggs Test.

A

A)Teamwork Test.

72
Q

Ryder needs to select team members based on their understanding of which people are important in different situations. Ryder should implement the:

A)Teamwork Test.
B)Team Role Test.
C)California Personality Inventory.
D)Hogan Developmental Survey.

A

B)Team Role Test.

73
Q

Subgroups that are established by the organization to achieve a specific goal are known as:

A)objective groups.
B)service groups.
C)informal groups.
D)formal groups.

A

D)formal groups.

74
Q

Groups of employees that have emerged among employees who interact frequently are known as:

A)collaborative alliances.
B)cardinal groups.
C)informal groups.
D)formal groups.

A

C)informal groups.

75
Q

_____ is the tension and friction that emerges in interpersonal associations and can harm team performance.

A)Process conflict
B)Task conflict
C)Relationship conflict
D)Personality conflict

A

C)Relationship conflict

76
Q

_____ results when team members have different ideas, beliefs, or viewpoints regarding the work to be done. It can sometimes be helpful for team performance.

A)Process conflict
B)Task conflict
C)Relationship conflict
D)Approach conflict

A

B)Task conflict

77
Q

_____ emerges when group members have incompatible ideas about how the work should be accomplished, which typically is harmful for performance.

A)Process conflict
B)Informational conflict
C)Relationship conflict
D)Task conflict

A

A)Process conflict

78
Q

April and Kenny, who are group members, are experiencing some conflict. April believes the team should focus on developing Internet advertisements for their products, while Kenny believes the team should focus on developing newspaper advertisements. This is an example of:

A)process conflict.
B)informational conflict.
C)relationship conflict.
D)task conflict.

A

D)task conflict.

79
Q

Autumn and Georgio, who are group members, are experiencing some conflict. Autumn believes that when making decisions, the group should vote and go with whatever gets a majority vote. Georgio, meanwhile, believes that they should try to reach a consensus when making decisions. This is an example of:

A)process conflict.
B)approach conflict.
C)relationship conflict.
D)task conflict.

A

A)process conflict.

80
Q

In group decision-making, when members are focused on understanding the problem well enough to devise answers, this phase is known as:

A)storming.
B)generating solutions.
C)diagnosing the problem.
D)evaluating solutions.

A

B)generating solutions.

81
Q

In group decision-making, when members consider responses in terms of their potential for success and failure, this phase is known as:

A)choose a solution.
B)generating solutions.
C)diagnosing the problem.
D)evaluating solutions.

A

D)evaluating solutions.

82
Q

In group decision-making, when members come to agree on the best answer is a phase known as:

A)developing an action plan and implementation.
B)generating solutions.
C)diagnosing the problem.
D)choosing solutions.

A

D)choosing solutions.

83
Q

In group decision-making, when members determine steps to carry out a decision, this phase is known as:

A)developing an action plan and implementation.
B)generating solutions.
C)diagnosing the problem.
D)evaluating solutions.

A

A)developing an action plan and implementation.

84
Q

Which of these reduces the effectiveness of brainstorming?

A)group members sharing their ideas whenever they want
B)group members bringing up new and relevant ideas
C)group members being nervous about voicing their opinions
D)group members placing their need to generate viable solutions above self-interests

A

C)group members being nervous about voicing their opinions

85
Q

Tamar’s team takes a vote on a solution and selects the one that receives the most votes. Tamar’s team is using which process of decision-making?

A)averaging
B)majority rule
C)consensus
D)delegating

A

B)majority rule

86
Q

A group of employees answers customer questions about a new version of software. This group represents a(n):

A)advisory team.
B)service team.
C)project team.
D)management team.

A

B)service team.

87
Q

A manager evaluates a team on whether her team members are carrying out their individual duties. She is evaluating their:

A)teamwork.
B)taskwork.
C)cohesion.
D)groupthink.

A

B)taskwork.

88
Q

A manager evaluates team members on their communication and coordination. She is evaluating their:

A)teamwork.
B)taskwork.
C)loafing.
D)groupthink.

A

A)teamwork.

89
Q

A team that is composed of members who work in different cities or countries and communicate via email, fax, web pages, and video conferencing are known as:

A)e-teams.
B)virtual teams.
C)symbolic teams.
D)distance teams.

A

B)virtual teams.

90
Q

Recent research by Johnson and colleagues (2009) found that there is a tipping point for computer-mediated communication in virtual groups. Specifically, groups that used computer-mediated communication more than _____ of the time reported lower levels of positive affect, task effectiveness, and affective commitment.

A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)90%

A

D)90%

91
Q

A newly developed test improves upon the Team Role Test by examining past behaviors and behavioral predispositions, rather than just assessing team knowledge. This test is known as the:

A) Team Role Experience and Orientation (TREO) test.
B) Team Role and Inexperience Metric (TRIM) test.
C)Team Role and Activity Exam (TRAX).
D) Team Role and Activity Check (TRACK).

A

A) Team Role Experience and Orientation (TREO) test.

92
Q

One current trend in teamwork is the development of two or more teams that tightly couple to work on collective goals. These are known as:

A)multiteam systems (MTS).
B)hierarchical goal teams (HGT).
C)linked organizational teams (LOT).
D)hierarchical achievement-linked organizations (HALO).

A

A)multiteam systems (MTS).

93
Q

Which of these is a predictor of work-team effectiveness?

A)Cultural signals
B)Group composition and size
C)Internal group efficiencies
D)Leader extraversion

A

D)Leader extraversion

94
Q

Which is NOT a function of an informal group?

a. Satisfy social needs such as friendship and companionship
b. Satisfy security needs; make employees feel safe and connected
c. Facilitate cooperation among employees
d. Adjust work behaviors of group members

A

d. Adjust work behaviors of group members

95
Q

_____ is defined as activities, behaviors, or actions that involve the task-oriented aspects of work.

a. Group cohesion
b. External interaction patterns
c. Teamwork
d. Task work

A

d. Task work

96
Q

_____ is defined as activities, behaviors, or actions that involve the process-oriented aspects of work.

a. Group cohesion
b. External interaction patterns
c. Teamwork
d. Task work

A

c. Teamwork

97
Q

An interdependent collection of individuals who share responsibility for specific outcomes for their organizations is called a:

a. formal group.
b. work group.
c. committee.
d. facilitator.

A

b. work group.

98
Q

_____ conflict emerges when group members have incompatible ideas about how the work should be accomplished.

a. relationship
b. Perspective
c. Process
d. Task

A

c. Process

99
Q

The process by which a group or organization establishes distinct roles for various members of the group or organization is called:

a. role differentiation.
b. conflict.
c. groupthink.
d. social loafing.

A

a. role differentiation.

100
Q

_____ is any nonmotivational element of a group situation that detracts from the group’s performance.

a. Unshared information
b. Shared information
c. Process loss
d. Group task

A

c. Process loss

101
Q

Which is NOT an antecedent of groupthink?

a. High morale
b. Isolation
c. Strong, biased leadership
d. High decisional stress

A

a. High morale

102
Q

cultural dimension that affects whether managers and employees focus on short-term or long-term goals

A

Time horizon

103
Q

involves teaching team members about sharing information, managing conflict, solving problems, clarifying roles, and making decisions; used to help team members learn to employ the resources of the entire team effectively

A

Team coordination training

104
Q

a team training intervention in which team members learn to diagnose the team’s problems and develop effective solutions

A

Guided team self-correction training

105
Q

training the team’s leader in conflict resolution and team coordination

A

Team leader training

106
Q

involves rotating team members through different positions on the team so that they can acquire an understanding of the duties of their teammates and an overview of the team’s tasks

A

Cross-training

107
Q

Belbin proposed that effective teams contain a combination of individuals capable of working in nine team roles; used by organizations and management consultants in Europe and Australia to assess and develop teams

A

team-role theory

108
Q

the productivity measurement and enhancement system. a motivational approach that utilizes goal setting, rewards, and feedback to increase motivation and performance

A

ProMES

109
Q

tendency for groups to make more risky decisions than individuals; related to the more general phenomenon of group polarization

A

Risky-shift phenomenon

110
Q

tendency for groups to make more extreme decisions than those made by individuals

A

Group polarization

111
Q

mode of thinking engaged in by people deeply involved in a cohesive group and when group members’ desire for agreement overrides their motivation to appraise alternative courses of action realistically

A

Groupthink

112
Q

degree to which team members desire to remain in the team and are committed to team goals

A

Cohesion

113
Q

reduced motivation and performance in groups that occurs when there is a reduced feeling of individual accountability or a reduced opportunity for evaluation of individual performance

A

Social loafing

114
Q

reduced group performance that occurs when team members expend their energies in different directions or fail to synchronize or coordinate their work

A

Coordination loss

115
Q

informal and sometimes unspoken rules that teams adopt to regulate members’ behavior

A

Norms

116
Q

differences in underlying attributes such as skills, abilities, personality characteristics, attitudes, beliefs, and values; may also include functional, occupational, and educational backgrounds

A

Psychological diversity

117
Q

differences in observable attributes or demographic characteristics such as age, gender, and ethnicity

A

Demographic diversity

118
Q

organized way for team members to think about how the team will work; helps team members understand and predict the behavior of their teammates

A

Shared mental model

119
Q

the attributes of team members, including skills, abilities, experiences, and personality characteristics

A

Team composition

120
Q

provides links among team inputs, processes, and outputs, thereby enabling an understanding of how teams perform and how to maximize their performance

A

Input-process-output model of team effectiveness

121
Q

used in virtual team interactions that include rephrasing unclear sentences or expressions so that all team members understand what is being said, acknowledging the receipt of messages, and responding within one business day

A

Virtual-communication skills

122
Q

used in virtual team interactions that include soliciting team members’ feedback on the work process used to accomplish team goals, expressing appreciation for ideas and completed tasks, and apologizing for mistakes

A

Virtual-socialization skills

123
Q

used in virtual team interactions that include exchanging ideas without criticism, agreeing on responsibilities, and meeting deadlines

A

Virtual-collaboration behaviors

124
Q

team that has widely dispersed members working together toward a common goal and linked through computers and other technology

A

Virtual team

125
Q

specific kind of production team that has control over a variety of functions, including planning shift operations, allocating work, determining work priorities, performing a variety of work tasks, and recommending new hires as work group members

A

Autonomous work group

126
Q

consists of front-line employees who produce tangible output

A

Production team

127
Q

created to solve a particular problem or set of problems and is disbanded after the project is completed or the problem is solved; also called an ad hoc committee, a task force, or a cross-functional team

A

Project team

128
Q

work group arrangement that typically involves 6 to 12 employees who meet regularly to identify work-related problems and generate ideas to increase productivity or product quality

A

Quality circle

129
Q

interdependent collection of individuals who work together toward a common goal and who share responsibility for specific outcomes to their organizations

A

Team