Chapter 11 - Delivery of Emergency Services Flashcards

1
Q

Which term was used by Layman to describe the initial use of resources followed by supplemental resource needs? p. 319
A.) Own situation
B.) Decision
C.) Plan of operation
D.) Facts

A

B.) Decision

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2
Q

Which type of evidence supports an inference (conclusion) formed from direct evidence? p. 336
A.) Circumstantial
B.) Influential
C.) Physical
D.) Combination

A

A.) Circumstantial

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3
Q

Which section will the ICS likely expand to include functions of at a long duration incident? p. 312
A.) Tactics
B.) Planning
C.) Logistics
D.) Administration

A

B.) Planning

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4
Q

Which victims should be rescued first? p. 318
A.) Line-of-sight
B.) Suspected
C.) Out of sight
D.) Reported

A

A.) Line-of-sight

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5
Q

Where should the scene control plan be located? p. 327
A.) GOPs
B.) PCA
C.) SOPs
D.) IAP

A

D.) IAP

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6
Q

When does size-up begin? p. 318
A.) Once arrive at the incident
B.) At the time of dispatch
C.) Before the incident is reported
D.) While en route to the scene

A

C.) Before the incident is reported

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7
Q

Which is an incorrect statement about the IFSTA Principles of Risk Management? p. 317
A.) Entering abandoned buildings should only be done when properly trained
B.) No risk to the safety of members shall be acceptable when there is no possibility of saving lives or property
C.) Activities that present a significant risk to the safety of members shall be limited to situations where there is potential to save endangered lives
D.) Team integrity is vital to safety and must always be emphasized

A

A.) Entering abandoned buildings should only be done when properly trained

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8
Q

What are guidelines to assist the officer in planning appropriate actions? p. 326
A.) Operational modes
B.) Administrative modes
C.) Planning modes
D.) Tactical modes

A

A.) Operational modes

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9
Q

What is the last in priority order at all incidents?
315) p.
A.) Life safety
B.) Property/environmental conservation
C.) Incident/scene stabilization
D.) Exposure protection

A

B.) Property/environmental conservation

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10
Q

Which type of evidence includes items such as paint and fibers? p. 337
A.) Trace
B.) Tangible
C.) Influential
D.) Circumstantial

A

A.) Trace

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11
Q

Which part of Layman’s RECEO-VS model focuses exclusively on the life-safety priority? p. 314
A.) Ventilation
B.) Extinguishment
C.) Exposures
D.) Rescue

A

D.) Rescue

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12
Q

Under the ideals of CRM, what does decision making during an emergency rely upon? p. 315
A.) SOPs
B.) Risk/benefit analysis
C.) Communications
D.) Teamwork building

A

B.) Risk/benefit analysis

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13
Q

How many times the distance from the farthest piece of evidence should the perimeter be set for an investigation after an explosion has occurred? p. 333
A.) 2.0 times
B.) 1.5 times
C.) 1.0 times
D.) 2.5 times

A

B.) 1.5 times

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14
Q

Which is NOT a correct statement about fire incident
investigations? p. 334
A.) Fire departments may remain at a scene for a reasonable amount of time to investigate a fire
B.) A written log of any persons being accompanied onto the premises before it is released must be kept
C.) Evidence must be marked, tagged, and photographed before the organization releases the scene
D.) Investigators may leave and reenter the premises within a reasonable amount of time

A

D.) Investigators may leave and reenter the premises within a reasonable amount of time

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14
Q

Which is NOT a correct statement about fire incident investigations? p. 334
A.) Fire departments may remain at a scene for a reasonable amount of time to investigate a fire
B.) A written log of any persons being accompanied onto the premises before it is released must be kept
C.) Evidence must be marked, tagged, and photographed before the organization releases the scene
D.) Investigators may leave and reenter the premises within a reasonable amount of time

A

D.) Investigators may leave and reenter the premises within a reasonable amount of time

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15
Q

What is the first thing the officer should collect when writing the post incident analysis dealing with strategy and tactics? p. 339
A.) Strategy and tactics contained in the IAP
B.) Communication logs and tapes
C.) Clear description of the site prior to the incident
D.) Owner/occupant witness statements

A

C.) Clear description of the site prior to the incident

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16
Q

When should company officers and their personnel begin a general size-up of the day’s situation?
p. 320
A.) Once at the station
B.) On their drive to work
C.) During roll-call/briefing
D.) At the first response call of the day

A

B.) On their drive to work

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17
Q

What is the key to a successful after action review?
p. 340
A.) Honesty
B.) Punishment
C.) Rewards
D.) Thoroughness

A

A.) Honesty

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18
Q

Which are what the officer knows and is actually observing at an incident? p. 323
A.) Facts
B.) Opinions
C.) Assumptions
D.) Reports

A

A.) Facts

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19
Q

Which are specific statements of measurable outcomes? p. 330
A.) Operational objectives
B.) Administrative objectives
C.) Strategic objectives
D.) Tactical objectives

A

D.) Tactical objectives

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20
Q

In which mode would exposures be protected while the fire is contained to the original fire building?
p. 326
A.) Conditional
B.) Combination
C.) Defensive
D.) Offensive

A

C.) Defensive

21
Q

Which command option would be appropriate when the situation requires immediate action to stabilize the incident and the company officer must assist? p. 324
A.) Operational mode
B.) Fast attack
C.) Command post creation
D.) Investigational mode

A

B.) Fast attack

22
Q

What is the preferred action that should be taken when evidence of a crime is located?
p. 332
A.) Make a note on the report
B.) Bag it up
C.) Move to the evidence collection area
D.) Protect it in place

A

D.) Protect it in place

23
Q

What does management of any emergency scene require that emergency responders accomplish?
p. 309
A.) Gain and maintain control
B.) Document each action taken
C.) Relinquish certain responsibilities
D.) Evaluate and interpret the scene

A

A.) Gain and maintain control

24
Q

Within what zone should friends/relatives of victims be kept during an incident? p. 329
A.) Cold
B.) Cool
C.) Warm
D.) Hot

A

A.) Cold

25
Q

Which are the overall plans for controlling an incident? p. 330
A.) Operational objectives
B.) Administrative goals
C.) Tactical objectives
D.) Strategic goals

A

D.) Strategic goals

26
Q

What does the company officer use to prioritize the actions taken during the initial phase of the incident? p. 312
A.) Incident location
B.) IAP
C.) Command structure
D.) Available resources

A

D.) Available resources

27
Q

In which zone is the decontamination station established at a hazardous materials incident? p. 327
A.) Cool
B.) Warm
C.) Hot
D.) Cold

A

B.) Warm

28
Q

What is the only reason that evidence at the scene may be disturbed?
p. 337
A.) Salvage operations
B.) Overhaul operations
C.) Secondary threats
D.) Fire extinguishment operations

A

D.) Fire extinguishment operations

29
Q

Which Constitutional Amendment guarantees protection to citizens from unreasonable search of their persons or property or seizure of their property? p. 339
A.) Fourth
B.) Fifth
C.) Tenth
D.) Eleventh

A

A.) Fourth

30
Q

How many operational periods does an IAP normally cover? p. 324
A.) One
B.) Three
C.) Two
D.) Four

A

A.) One

31
Q

In which industry did crew resource management originate? p. 314
A.) Assembly line manufacturing
B.) Air transportation
C.) Chemical refinery
D.) Fire and emergency services

A

B.) Air transportation

32
Q

What is NOT a purpose of the PIA and After Action Review? p. 339
A.) Determine who is to blame
B.) Examine things that could have been performed better
C.) Training exercise
D.) Determine if incident was conducted safely

A

A.) Determine who is to blame

33
Q

Which is NOT a question the company officer must ask when addressing property and environment conservation during an incident? p. 331
A.) What is the monetary value of the property?
B.) What property can be saved?
C.) What secondary property can be affected?
D.) What property is endangered?

A

A.) What is the monetary value of the property?

34
Q

What mode of contact does OSHA dictate the interior crew must maintain under the 2-in/2-out rule? p. 316
A.) Visual or sight
B.) Visual or touch
C.) Visual or smell
D.) Visual or voice

A

D.) Visual or voice

35
Q

Per NFPA, what is the upper human survivability limit without PPE? p. 317
A.) 191^F (88^C)
B.) 314^F (157^C)
C.) 137^F (58^C)
D.) 212^F (100^C)

A

D.) 212^F (100^C)

36
Q

Under NIMS-ICS, who will be responsible for establishing command at an incident? p. 310
A.) Health and Safety Officer
B.) First-arriving personnel
C.) Senior officers
D.) Dispatch operator

A

B.) First-arriving personnel

37
Q

What check must be done by either the officer or another unit during the initial size-up? p. 322
A.) Interior
B.) Cornered
C.) 360-degree
D.) Aerial

A

C.) 360-degree

38
Q

To whom does the safety officer give any recommendations after conducting a post-incident analysis?
p. 340
A.) Insurance adjuster
B.) Incident Commander
C.) Training officer
D.) Health and Safety Officer

A

D.) Health and Safety Officer

39
Q

Under OSHA, what is the minimum required size of teams when working in an IDLH environment?
p. 316
A.) 4
B.) 8
C.) 2
D.) 6

A

C.) 2

40
Q

Which is NOT a correct statement when considering life safety during an incident? p. 315
A.) How many people are in need of being rescued, sheltered-in-place, or evacuated?
B.) The ability to provide safe ingress and egress for occupants and firefighters must be the first consideration during rescue
C.) Rescue of animals should be given the same priority as people
D.) What resources will be needed to accomplish these actions?

A

C.) Rescue of animals should be given the same priority as people

41
Q

Which is considered an action of opportunity under SLICE-RS? p. 314
A.) Extinguishment
B.) Control the flow path
C.) Rescue
D.) Size-up

A

C.) Rescue

42
Q

Which type of evidence is composed of facts to which a person can attest to without further support? p. 335
A.) Circumstantial
B.) Material
C.) Physical
D.) Direct

A

D.) Direct

43
Q

Out to which pre-established zone may the scene be secured for the initial fire investigation?
p. 333
A.) Cold
B.) Hot
C.) Warm
D.) Cool

A

B.) Hot

44
Q

What can the company officer assume about the incident based on the number and types of units being dispatched? p. 323
A.) Size and complexity of the incident
B.) Training level of resources
C.) Position that will be assumed at arrival
D.) Necessary backup resources to be requested

A

A.) Size and complexity of the incident

45
Q

What can be done to allow the company officer to maintain command responsibilities during a fast intervention situation? p. 325
A.) Use a portable radio
B.) Make all initial assignments
C.) Transfer Command
D.) Set up the Command Post

A

A.) Use a portable radio

46
Q

What is a fire scene investigation in legal terms?
p. 338
A.) Search
B.) Seizure
C.) Prosecution
D.) Fault-finding

A

A.) Search

47
Q

Which is an incorrect statement about establishing the perimeter during an initial investigation?
p. 333
A.) Methods used to mark the perimeter should be easy to use and deploy
B.) To allow for a visible and easily recognizable perimeter many organizations use rope, traffic cones, and tape
C.) Use uniformed law enforcement officers to control access
D.) Ensure the perimeter is the bare minimum size to allow for growth if needed

A

D.) Ensure the perimeter is the bare minimum size to allow for growth if needed

48
Q

What refers to evidence that is damaged, altered, or lost by someone who has the responsibility to preserve it? p. 338
A.) Sabotage
B.) Spoliation
C.) Contamination
D.) Separation

A

B.) Spoliation

49
Q

Who should the company officer ask to assist withisolation and crowd control during an active incident? p. 332
A.) Firefighters
B.) Civilian bystanders
C.) Law enforcement
D.) Building maintenance

A

C.) Law enforcement