Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Chapter 10 - Prokaryotic Genome Organization & Regulation > Flashcards

Chapter 10 - Prokaryotic Genome Organization & Regulation Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Most prokaryotes have a _________________ circular chromosome; however, exceptions exist - some have two or three circular chromosomes and others have linear ones (or a combination thereof).

A

Singluar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The DNA in prokaryotic chromosomes is __________________, a consequence of the action of a class of enzymes called DNA __________________.

A

Supercoiled

Gyrases (topoisomerases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The chromosome is organized into about 50 discrete ______________.

A

Domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are domains?

A

Domains are regions of the genome where supercoiling can be eliminated by nicking DNA and allowing DNA to rotate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most of the prokaryotic genome is noncoding. True or false?

A

False; most of the prokaryotic genome is coding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most of the prokaryotic genome encodes for proteins or ______________ molecules.

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Do prokaryotes have many nucleotides between genes?

A

No; they typically have relatively few nucleotides between genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Prokaryotic chromosomes contain multiple ____________________, genetic sequences that can change their location on a DNA molecule.

A

Transposons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Transposable elements are flanked by ____________ repeats.

A

Inverted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the movement of transposons?

A

Transposase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

There are two basic types of transposition. What are they?

A

Replicative

Nonreplicative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In __________________ transposition, one copy of the transposon remains at its original site while a second copy is inerted elsewhere.

A

Replicative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In ___________________ transposition, the transposon is physically removed from its original site and reintegrated into the new site.

A

Nonreplicative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Do transposons transpose often?

A

No; transposons normally transpose only rarely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The simplest transposons are called ____________________ __________________.

A

Insertion sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Other transposons are called _________________ _________________.

A

Composite transposons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_____________________ are usually circular molecules of supercoiled DNA that encode dispensable functions.

A

Plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are three ways in which plasmids differ from chromosomes?

A
  1. Plasmids are usually much smaller
  2. Plasmids are present in some members of a species but not in others
  3. Plasmids encode no functions that are essential to the cell under all conditions of growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

F plasmids are __________________ plasmids while R plasmids are _________________ plasmids.

A

Conjugative plasmids

Resistance plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a gene?

A

A unit of heredity that determines a trait; a sequence of nucleotides where the order determines the order of monomers in a nucleic acid and/or polypeptide product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prokaryotic genes are often organized into _____________________.

A

Operons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Multiple genes are commonly grouped together into a single transcriptional unit under the control of a single promoter in what is known as an __________________.

A

Operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A ______________________ _________ is a stretch of DNA transcribed into a molecule of RNA.

A

Transcriptional unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes bind to particular sequences called __________ ___________ ______________________ on mRNA to initiate translation.

A

Shine-Dalgarno sequences

25
Q

Transcriptional units tend to be oritened so that they are transcribed in the ______________ direction as the chromosome is replicated.

A

Same

26
Q

The E. coli core polymerase is a large unit composed of two ___ units, two ___ units, and a ___ unit.

A

Alpha units

Beta units

Omega unit

27
Q

What unit do bacteria have that associates with the enzyme before promoter binding but can dissociate after transcription is initiated?

A

The sigma factor

28
Q

What is the role of the sigma factor?

A

Recognition of promoters and DNA melting

29
Q

What is the name given to the complex formed when the sigma factor and RNA polymerase bind?

A

Holoenzyme

30
Q

Different categories of genes can be turned on by simply using a different sigma factor. For example, sigma-70 recognizes ________________ genes, and sigma-32 recognizes _______________ genes.

A

Housekeeping

Heat-shock

31
Q

Promoter recognition by RNA polymerase is different in bacteria than in archaea and eukarya. What is the primary difference?

A

RNA polymerases in archaea and eukarya lack the sigma factor; thus, they are unable to recognize promoters and require transcription factors to assist

32
Q

Specific proteins called __________________ __________ recognize and bind to sites adjacent to promoters in archaea and eukarya.

A

Transcription factors

33
Q

The __________________ ______________ is one at which the RNA polymerase holoenzyme recognizes easily and will efficiently initiate transcription.

A

Consesus sequence

34
Q

Promoters may be ____________ or ___________.

A

Weak

Strong

35
Q

When a consensus sequence is easily recognized and efficiently initiates transcription, what is the promoter called?

A

Strong promoter

36
Q

Many promoters have significant differences from the consensus sequence, and these _________ __________ are recognized less effectively by RNA polymerase.

A

Weak promoters

37
Q

There are two principal strategies for optimizing promoter strength for each transcriptional unit. What are they?

A
  1. The promoter strength is matched to the maximum amount of gene product the cell needs (i.e., the more the cell needs a product, the stronger the promoter will be, and vice versa)
  2. The promoter strength is weakened when products of genes are needed at high amounts and the use of transcription factors is used to facilitate activation and repression of gene expression
38
Q

There are two types of bacterial transcription termination. What are they?

A

Rho-dependent termination

Rho-independent termination

39
Q

What happens in rho-dependent transcription termination?

A
  1. Rho binds to a “rut” in mRNA rich in C residues
  2. Rho slides along mRNA in a 5’ to 3’ direction
  3. RNA polymerase is paused at a G-C rich site with secondary structure
  4. Rho catches up to RNA polymerase and pulls the transcript free of the polymerase and template, releasing it
40
Q

____________ is a protein that binds to C-rich sequences in RNA that are not translated and eventually terminates transcription.

A

Rho

41
Q

In ___-_____________ termination, the RNA polymerase falls off the template when it is paused at a series of A-U pairs, which is caused by a stem-loop structure in the RNA immediately behind the polymerase. This type of termination is also known as _______________ termination.

A

Rho-independent

Intrinsic termination

42
Q

Why does RNA polymase release DNA in Rho-independent transcription termination?

A

The A-U base pairs are weak, and after a few seconds, the mRNA dissociates

43
Q

_________________ is a section of DNA or RNA that codes for a product.

A

Cistron

44
Q

In addition to control sequences (e.g., promoter), most transcriptional units have one or more _____________ ________ that allow the rate of transcription and/or the rate of translation to be controlled.

A

Regulatory sites

45
Q

Gene expression can be regulated at many levels. What are they?

A

Transcriptional

Post-transcriptional

Translational

Post-translational

46
Q

Transcription initiation is controlled by _____________ proteins known as transcription factors (repressors or activators).

A

Allosteric

47
Q

Allosteric proteins that bind to DNA and turn off transcription are called ______________, and this mode of control is termed _____________ control.

A

Repressors

Negative control

48
Q

Allosteric proteins that bind to DNA and turn transcription on are called __________________, and this mode of control is termed ___________ control.

A

Activators (or transcription factors)

Positive control

49
Q

An operon is called _________________ if the presence of a small molecule known as an ________________ turns the system on.

A

Inducible

Inducer

50
Q

In negative inducible control, when is the repressor active?

A

When it is bound to DNA but unbound to inducer

51
Q

In negative inducible control, when an inducer binds to a repressor, what happens?

A

The repressor is inactivated and transcription can proceed

52
Q

In positive inducible control, when is the activator active?

A

When bound to the DNA and its activator

53
Q

____________________ operons are turned off by the presence of a _________________.

A

Repressible operons

Co-repressor

54
Q

In negative repressible control, when is the repressor active?

A

When bound to its co-repressor

55
Q

In negative repressible control, when is transcription blocked?

A

When the corepressor binds the repressor, which can then bind DNA and halt transcription

56
Q

In positive repressible control, when is repressor active?

A

When it is not bound to a co-repressor

57
Q

In positive repressible control, when is transcription blocked?

A

When the corepressor is not bound to the repressor; when not bound to its co-repressor, the repressor binds DNA and inhibits transcription

58
Q

Positive or negative control tells me about the effect of protein binding: a repressor _______________ transcription while a ________________ activates transcription. ______________ or ________________ tells me that the ability of these protein to bind can be prevented or activated via a ________________.

A

Inhibits

Activator

Induction

Repression

Corepressor

59
Q
A

Microbiology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions