Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physiology > Chapter 1: Homeostasis > Flashcards

Chapter 1: Homeostasis Flashcards

1
Q

Physiology

A

Study of how organisms function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cells

A

The smallest structural unit that can perform all the functions needed for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cell Differentiation

A

The process to becoming specialized for a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 Categories of Cells

A

Muscle, Neuron, Epithelial, Connective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What cell type are blood vessels considered?

A

Connective Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tissue

A

Group of similarity differentiated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Organ

A

Collection of tissues that work together for the same function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Organ System

A

Collection of organs that work together for a common function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Muscle Cell Function

A

Transmit force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Muscle Cell Types

A

Skeletal, Cardiac, and Smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neuron Cell Function

A

To initiate, integrate, and conduct electrical signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Basement Membrane

A

Thin layer of ECM that the epithelial cells sit on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Basolateral Side

A

Faces the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Apical Side

A

Faces the lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tight Junctions

A

Fill the space between epithelial cells and have selectively permeable membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Loose connective tissue

A

loose tissue below the epithelial layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dense connective tissue

A

Tendon, Ligament, Bone, Adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fluid connective tissue

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ECM [ two functions ]

A

Provides a stable scaffold, transmits chemical messengers cell to cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ropelike ___ fibers, and rubber band like ____ fibers.

A

Collagen, and elastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Functional Unit

A

Smallest unit with a common function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Intracellular Fluid

A

Inside cells, 67% of body fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Extracellular Fluid

A

Fluid surrounding cells and in blood 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Interstitial Fluid

A

surrounds cells, but not counting the blood plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Comparing concentrations between blood plasma and interstitial fluid

A

about the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

5 common physiological variables

A

blood pressure, body temp, oxygen, glucose, sodium ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Homeostasis

A

Relatively stable internal conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dynamic constancy

A

Variable may fluctuate in short term, but be averagely stable or predictable in the long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pathophysiology

A

A condition giving loss to homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Steady state vs. equilibrium

A

Both have a constant variable, but equilibrium does not require additional energy to maintain this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Negative Feedback System

A

A system result will reduce the conditions that made it start in the first place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is the production of ATP an example of negative feedback?

A

As energy is stored in ATP bonds, it slows the enzymes that break down glucose, therefore preventing additional creation of ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Example of positive feedback:

A

Giving birth. Uterine contractions cause release of oxytocin, which further causes more uterine contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Set point

A

The value at steady state for a particular biological variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Clashing demands

A

Sometimes it is only possible to maintain a set point at the expense of less important set points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why is it a benefit that multiple systems can control a single parameter?

A

The redundancy allows for the parameter to continue to be regulated in case a disease knocks out one of the systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Feedforward example

A

When sensors can sense the body external temperature to proactively start the body warming before it actually starts to cool internally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Reflex

A

Involuntary built in response to a specific stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Reflex Arc Components

A

Stimulus–>Receptor–>Integrating Center–>Effector–>Response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Afferent and Efferent Pathways

A

Afferent: Sensing the stimulus up to the integrating center
Efferent: From the integrating center to the effector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hormone

A

Chemical messenger sent normally through blood to another site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Local Homeostatic Responses

A

Response in a local area to a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

Transmitted between neurons or to their effectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Paracrine

A

Transmission within a local neighboring area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Autocrine

A

Signaling of a cell to itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Juxtacrine

A

Signaling of a cell to another when touching through the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Diffusion

A

Random thermal motion of a molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Flux Gradient (In General)

A

Solute particles move from high to low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define “Net flux”

A

While flux may occur in both directions, net flux is the summation of both directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Lipid Bilayer is made of:

A

Phospholipids… with a polar phosphate head group, and a non polar fatty acid chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What sort of substances can get through the bilayer?

A

Small non polar molecules, such as O2, CO2, ethanol, fatty acids, steroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What sort of substances cannot get through the bilayer without help?

A

Large polar molecules such as glucose, or charged ions [Na+,K+,Cl-,Ca2+]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What elements of ion channels make them selective?

A

Size of the pores, and the charge of the channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are three ways that channels can be gated?

A

Chemical, Electrical, Mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Define a ligand:

A

A chemical messenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In what way is a plasma membrane generally charged?

A

Positive on the inside, and negative on the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the three general types of Mediated Transport?

A

1) Facilitated Diffusion
2) Primary Active Transport
3) Secondary Active Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe 4 properties of facilitated diffusion:

A

1) Net flux is down the gradient
2) No energy required
3) Selectivity because of binding sites
4) Transporter can be at saturation due to limited amount of binding sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a primary example of Facilitated Diffusion?

A

Glucose transport into the body of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the primary example of the Primary Active Transport?

A

Na+K+ATPase Pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Before Primary Active Transport, what is the general concentration of K+ and Na+

A

Intracellular: Low Na+, High K+
Extracellular: High Na+, Low K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

PAT step 1:

A

3 Na+ ions, and ATP attach to the binding sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

PAT step 2:

A

ATP –> ADP, and the channel is opened, and the Na+ goes out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

PAT step 3:

A

2K+ attach to binding sites from outside of the cell, and phosphate is removed, switching the conformation of the channel back to open into the cell, releasing the 2K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Describe 4 properties of Active Transport

A

1) Flux is against the concentration gradient
2) Energy required
3) Certain selectivity due to binding sites
4) Channel can be saturated due to limited binding sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Intracellular Ion Concentrations

A

Na+ 15mM, K+ 150mM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Extracellular Ion Concentrations

A

Na+ 145mM, K+ 5mM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Describe 4 properties of Secondary Active Transport

A

1) Against a concentration gradient
2) Energy provided by an ion’s gradient
3) Certain Selectivity
4) Transporter saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the usual ion in Secondary Active Transport?

A

Na+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does it mean for a mediated transport system to saturate?

A

Since there is a limited amount of channels and binding sites, there is a maximum amount of solute particles that can cross the membrane at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Channels in the membrane for water:

A

aquaporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Can water pass through the lipid bilayer?

A

Yes because the molecules are small, but they are also polar, and therefore quite slow for any efficient physiological process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Osmolarity

A

The total solute concentration of a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Osmole

A

one mol of solute particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the osmolarity of 1 mol of NaCl in 1 liter of water?

A

2 osmoles/liter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the general osmolarity of the ECF?

A

300mOsm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is tonicity?

A

The concentration of non - penetrating solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What happens to a cell in a hypotonic solution?

A

The water concentration outside of the cell is greater than inside the cell, therefore water will enter the cell, causing it to expand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What happens to a cell in an isotonic solution?

A

Nothing. It will retain its volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens to a cell in a hypertonic solution?

A

The water concentration inside the cell is greater than outside the cell, therefore water will leave the cell, causing it to shrink.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Endo and Exo cytosis

A

When a lipid bilayer is formed around particles that fuse to the membrane either allowing for entrance [endo] or exiting [exo] of solute particles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Functional unit in the Nervous System

A

nerve cell or neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Nerve

A

collection of nerves bound together by connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

CNS: Central Nervous System

A

Brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

PNS: Afferent division defintion

A

sensory cells that send signals AT or TOWARDS the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

PNS: Efferent division definition

A

cells that send signals AWAY from the CNS to the periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Somatic sensory

A

touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Visceral sensory

A

organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Special sensory

A

hear, taste, smell, see

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Somatic motor

A

skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Autonomic motor: enteric

A

gi tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Autonomic motor: sympathetic

A

fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Autonomic motor: parasympathetic

A

rest and digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Dendrites

A

incoming receiving branches of neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Cell body of nerve is also called:

A

soma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Initial segment of nerve cell is also called [2]:

A

axon hillock, trigger zone; is where the e- starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Axon

A

Sends signal from soma to axon terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

axon terminals

A

sends the signal to another nerve cell by neurotransmitters from vesicles

99
Q

What do axon terminals target?

A

other neurons, muscles, or glands

100
Q

Interneurons

A

exist in the CNS to integrate information

101
Q

ratio of afferent to inter to efferent neurons

A

1A=200000 Inter = 10E

102
Q

Presynaptic and post synaptic

A

self explanatory

103
Q

Glial Cells - 2 types, and where they are found

A

Nourish and protect neurons:
Oligodendrocytes: CNS
Schwann Cells: PNS

104
Q

How many patches of protection do an oligodendrocyte and schwann cell provide for neurons?

A

Oligodendrocytes: many

Schwann Cells: one

105
Q

When measuring membrane potential, readings are usual taken with the reference electrode in the ___ and the recording electrode in the ____.

A

ECF,ICF

106
Q

The typical resting membrane potential is at:

A

-70mV

107
Q

Sodium is typically at a higher concentration in the [ECF/ICF]

A

ECF

108
Q

Potassium is typically at a higher concentration in the [ECF/ICF]

A

ICF

109
Q

Chloride is typically at a higher concentration in the [ECF/ICF]

A

ECF

110
Q

Anions are typically at a higher concentration in the [ECF/ICF]

A

ICF

111
Q

Are there more K+ or Na+ leak channels open at rest?

A

K+

112
Q

Nernst Equation

A

E[ion] = 61/Z * log (Co/Ci)

113
Q

Which ion dominates in determining resting membrane potential?

A

Potassium [K+ is king]

114
Q

At RMP, are there more K+ or Na+ leak channels?

A

K+ channels

115
Q

At RMP which directions are the K+ and Na+ chemical and electrical gradients?

A

Potassium chemical gradient is out, electrical is in. Sodium both are into the cell.

116
Q

Even though we have more K+ leak channels, why doesn’t the leak out as much?

A

The resting potential of the cell is already close to the desired potential of K+ [-70 is close to -90].

117
Q

For Type I cells, describe the chloride concentrations

A

The resting potential for chloride is very similar to -70mV. Also, the membrane is not very permeable to Cl-, therefore the concentration of chloride is relatively equal in the ECF and ICF.

118
Q

For Type II cells, describe the chloride concentrations

A

There exists minor pumping exchange of Cl- for HCO3-. This creates a slightly less concentration of Cl- inside the cell, therefore via Nernst, the RMP is -76mV for chloride.

119
Q

Depolarization

A

Going from negative to 0.

120
Q

Overshoot

A

Going from 0 to positive

121
Q

Repolarizing

A

Returning from positive to -70mV

122
Q

Hyperpolarizing

A

Going from -70mV to more negative

123
Q

Ligand gated channel

A

chemically activated

124
Q

Depolarization [excitatory/inhibitory]

A

Excitatory

125
Q

Hyper polarization

[excitatory/inhibitory]

A

Inhibitory

126
Q

Graded stimulus

A

Depolarization or hyper polarization proportional to the size of the stimulus

127
Q

During an action potential, which is positive feedback, and which is negative feedback between Na+ and K+?

A

Sodium is positive feedback, because the more depolarized the cell becomes, the more the sodium channels open, further depolarizing the cell.

128
Q

What is one reason that afterhyperpolarization occurs?

A

The voltage K+ channels are slow.

129
Q

Absolute refractory period

A

The cell CANNOT undergo another action potential at this time.

130
Q

Relative refractory period

A

The cell CAN undergo another action potential, but it takes a stronger stimulus than before.

131
Q

Why does it take a stronger stimulus in the relative refractory period?

A

Not all the Na+ channels have yet closed, and some of the K+ channels are still open.

132
Q

What is one thing that a refractory period ensures?

A

One way propagation of signal.

133
Q

What part of the neuron has the highest density of voltage gated Na+ channels?

A

The axon hillock.

134
Q

What does the myelin sheath do for neurons?

A

it allows saltatory conduction

135
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

When there is no potential on certain stretches of the axon, therefore charge can jump from one node of Ranvier to another quicker.

136
Q

What property of the axon determines velocity?

A

The diameter.

137
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

Places where cells merge like a bridge. conducts electrical signals very quickly and directly,.

138
Q

Where are gap junctions found?

A

in the heart, smooth muscle, and some brain cells

139
Q

What is the role of Ca2+ in neurotransmitter release?

A

When the AP reaches the axon terminal, it opens voltage gated Ca2+ channels which enter the neuron and induce exocytosis of the synaptic vesicles. Neurotransmitters are then diffused across the synaptic cleft.

140
Q

What are V snares and T snares?

A

Little protein chains, [vesicle, and terminal] which bind together on contact with Ca2+ and cause the synaptic vesicles to merge with the post synaptic cell.

141
Q

What is an EPSP?

A

Excitatory Post Synaptic Potential

142
Q

What are 4 reasons that Postsynaptic potentials are more brief in their depolarization than APs?

A

1) NT’s rapidly bind and unbind from the receptors on the post synaptic cell
2) NT’s are taken back during reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
3) NT’s can diffuse away from the cells while in the synaptic cleft.
4) NT’s can be destroyed by enzymes.

143
Q

What is the typical threshold value?

A

-55mV

144
Q

Convergence and Divergence of neurons

A

self explanatory

145
Q

Chloride Type I and how this can be an inhibitory signal

A

Chloride, while wanting a -70mV RMP will not show a change in RMP, influx of Chloride does keep the cell at 70mV instead of allowing it to move up into an AP.

146
Q

If B is going to C, but A is going to B, what is this called?

A

Axoaxonal synapse

147
Q

What are three terms that dictate synaptic strength?

A

Facilitation, Inhibition, and Autoregulation

148
Q

How do drugs modify synaptic strength?

A

They can affect multiple spots of regulation of neurotransmitters from creation to reception etc.

149
Q

Long Term Potentiation: Function with Glutamate

A

Some of the glutamate neurotransmitters activate the non-selective AMPA receptors, while some causes Ca2+ influx at NMDA receptors that cause a second messenger system for more glutamate receptors, and the release of Mg2+ that can return to the presynaptic cell and increase the synthesis of glutamate.

150
Q

Neuromodulators are usually made of

A

small peptides

151
Q

Neuromodulators are usually released…

A

with NTs

152
Q

Neuromodulators usually activate ___

A

2nd messenger cascades

153
Q

Frontal Lobe

A

Thought

154
Q

Parietal Lobe

A

Speech

155
Q

Occipital Lobe

A

Sight

156
Q

Temporal Lobe

A

Sound

157
Q

Cerebrum

A

contains 4 lobes [frontal,parietal,occipital, temporal]

158
Q

Diencephalon

A

contains thalamus and hypothalamus

159
Q

Forebrain

A

contains diencephalon and cerebrum

160
Q

Thalamus

A

synaptic relay station

161
Q

Hypothalamus

A

neural and endocrine command center

162
Q

Cerebellum

A

balance, posture, but not skeletal muscle control

163
Q

White Matter

A

Contains mostly mylenated axons on the inside of CNS, and outside of spinal cord

164
Q

Gray Matter

A

Mostly cell bodies and dendrites on the outside of CNS, and the inside of the spinal cord

165
Q

Basal Nuclei

A

Deep clusters of cell bodies that affect inputs and outputs from the cortex involved in posture and movement

166
Q

Thalamus

A

Sensory relay station

167
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Integrator of homeostasis, Master Control. Hormones, autonomic nervous system, feeding and drinking behavior etc.

168
Q

Pituitary gland:

A

Master gland of the endocrine system. Releases epinephrine and norepinephrine.

169
Q

Spinal Cord: Ventral Horn

A

Contains cell bodies of efferent neurons

170
Q

Spinal Cord: Dorsal Root Ganglion/ Horn

A

Contains cell bodies of afferent neurons

171
Q

Spinal Cord: Dorsal Root

A

Afferent axons

172
Q

Spinal Cord: Ventral Root

A

Efferent axons

173
Q

Cranial Nerves: Optic

A

Carries input from receptors in eye

174
Q

Cranial Nerves: Glossopharyngeal

A

From tongue, auditory tube skin, and carotid baroreceptors –> skeletal muscles involved in swallowing and parotid salivary gland

175
Q

Cranial Nerves: Vagus

A

From thorax and abdomen to skeletal muscles of pharynx and larynx and smooth muscle and glands of thorax and abdomen. [breathing?]

176
Q

Cranial Nerve: Accessory

A

Innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles in neck.

177
Q

The Spinal Nerves: Neck,arms,hands,shoulders

A

Cervical [8]

178
Q

The Spinal Nerves: Chest, Upper abdomen

A

Thoracic [12]

179
Q

The Spinal Nerves: Lower abdomen, hips, legs

A

Lumbar [5]

180
Q

The Spinal Nerves: Lower GI, genitals

A

Sacral [5]

181
Q

The Spinal Nerves: Tailbone

A

Coccygeal [1]

182
Q

Give the other name, and relative sizes of the pre and post ganglionic nerves: Parasympathetic

A

Craniosacral, pre is large, post is small.

183
Q

Varicosities

A

Bulges in the axon near the tissue to be signaled. “Crop dusts” the tissue with neurotransmitters.

184
Q

Dual innervation

A

Organs are connected to both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. Effects are usually opposite, and both are tonically active.

185
Q

Somatic NS: NT and Receptor

A

Acetylcholine and Nicotinic

186
Q

Autonomic-Para: NT and Receptor

A

Acetylcholine, Nicotinic and then Muscarinic

187
Q

Autonomic-Sympathetic-NonHormonal: NT and Receptor

A

Acetylcholine,Nicotinic,Norepinephrine,Adrenergic receptors

188
Q

Autonomic-Sympathetic-Hormonal: NT and Receptor

A

Acetylcholine,Nicotinic,Epinephrine,Adrenergic receptors

189
Q

Receptor Potential

A

A graded potential at the peripheral ending of an afferent neuron or on a specialized sensory cell adjacent to an afferent neuron.

190
Q

Where is the first place you can get an AP in the neuron?

A

The First Node of Ranvier

191
Q

Rapidly Adapting receptor

A

On and Off, [i.e. clothes pressing on skin]

192
Q

Slowly Adapting Receptor

A

Continue to fire the whole duration of the stimulus, [i.e. maintaining posture]

193
Q

Describe Sensory Coding

A

Converting a stimulus energy into a pattern of action potentials to the CNS.

194
Q

Sensory Unit

A

A single afferent neuron with all of its receptor endings

195
Q

Receptive Field:

A

are of the body that leads to activity in a particular sensory neuron

196
Q

What does “Adequate Stimulus” mean when referring to sensory coding?

A

It means “right type”, but not necessarily enough strength.

197
Q

What are two ways that intensity is differentiated in primary sensory encoding?

A

Frequency of action potentials, and by recruitment, where neighboring afferent neurons also are signaled.

198
Q

What is “acuity” when referring to signals?

A

Precision in localizing a stimulus

199
Q

Labeled Lines

A

Predetermined pathways that encode for a specific sensation in the CNS. Example, is activating phantom limb.

200
Q

Two point discrimination is better with a [large/small] number of individual sensory neurons, and [larger/smaller] receptive fields

A

larger number of individual sensory neurons, smaller receptive fields.

201
Q

What can be said about the gradient of receptor fields?

A

The neuron responds more vigorously when a stimulus is applied in the center of the receptive field because the density is greatest there.

202
Q

Receptive Field Overlap

A

When different neurons have overlapping receptive fields, the stimulus site can be more accurately determined by the CNS.

203
Q

Lateral Inhibition

A

When a neuron is excited, it causes an inhibitory response in local neurons so that the stimulus is localized.

204
Q

Ascending Neural Pathways normally consist of how many neurons in the chain?

A
  1. Sensory neuron, labeled line to thalamus or brainstem, then to cerebral cortex
205
Q

One sense does not always go through the thalamus.

A

Olfactory sense.

206
Q

Association Areas

A

Final perceptive destination

207
Q

Most nociceptors are [slow/rapid] adapting

A

slow adapting

208
Q

What neurotransmitter is released usually for nociceptors?

A

Substance P or Glutamate

209
Q

How do anti-inflammatory drugs work, such as aspirin?

A

blocks prostaglandin synthesis

210
Q

How do opiates work?

A

They block ascending synapses to the brain

211
Q

What is TENS?

A

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation: When you rub a bump after an injury, the somatic receptor activation can stimulate your descending neurons that inhibit transmission of pain

212
Q

What is referred pain?

A

When your cortex incorrectly senses the location of pain. Often this can be because your visceral and somatic afferent neurons are converging on the same neurons in the spinal cord

213
Q

Where is a heart attack normally felt?

A

Your left arm or shoulder

214
Q

What can referred pain tell you about?

A

Which part of your viscera might be damaged.

215
Q

Eye Anatomy: Sclera

A

White protective eye capsule over all but cornea

216
Q

Eye Anatomy: Cornea

A

Transparent covering for focusing image

217
Q

Eye Anatomy: Choroid Layer

A

Dark pigment to absorb light at back of eye

218
Q

Eye Anatomy: Iris

A

Determines pupil diameter, also gives eye distinct color

219
Q

Eye Anatomy: Ciliary muscle

A

controls lens shape

220
Q

Eye Anatomy: Zonular Fibers

A

connect ciliary muscle to lens

221
Q

Eye Anatomy: lens

A

alters light diffraction by changing shape

222
Q

Eye Anatomy: Macula lutea

A

No blood vessels here, yellow spot, good for acute vision

223
Q

Eye Anatomy: Fovea Centralis

A

high color acuity, cones focused here

224
Q

Eye Anatomy: Optic Disc

A

neurons exit eye to the brain, no photoreceptors, blindspot

225
Q

Eye Anatomy: Aqueous Humor

A

Anterior fluid compartment between iris and cornea

226
Q

Eye Anatomy: Vitreous Humor

A

Posterior space filled with jelly substance between lens and retina

227
Q

Which is larger? Refraction at lens or cornea?

A

Cornea

228
Q

What in general is the accommodation reflex for the eye?

A

Lens changes shape to account for distance focusing

229
Q

What happens when ciliary muscle contracts?

A

The zonular fibers are lessened in tension, curving the lens. This is the parasympathetic response

230
Q

What happen when the ciliary muscle relaxes?

A

The zonular fibers are tightened, flattens the lens. This is the sympathetic response.

231
Q

Why is it considered parasympathetic when the lens is rounded?

A

It focused in on close things. Focus on your food. Rest and digest.

232
Q

Rounding the lens increases or decreases refraction?

A

Rounding the lens increases refraction.

233
Q

Myopia [definition,cause, accommodation reflex, optical correction]

A

Can’t see far. Eye too long, focal point before the retina. Accommodation reflex is in reverse, allowing for seeing close objects, optical correction is concave lens that diffracts the light before the cornea so that the usual over focusing occurs right at the retina.

234
Q

Hyperopia [definition,cause, accommodation reflex, optical correction]

A

You can’t see near. The eye is too short, focal point after the retina. Accommodation reflex is normal, rounding the lens focuses earlier right at retina. Optical correction is convex lens that starts to straighten or focus close object earlier so focal point is at retina instead of behind.

235
Q

Presbyopia [cause]

A

Lens loses flexibility, and cannot round… similar to hyperopia where close up objects cannot be focused.

236
Q

Rods

A

Sensitive, low acuity, no color vision, located in periphery, 100:1 ratio with ganglia.

237
Q

Cones

A

Not sensitive, high acuity, color vision, located in fovea centralism, 1:1 ratio with ganglia

238
Q

In the dark: Phototransduction

A

cGMP high, photoreceptor depolarized, which releases inhibitory information to bipolar cell. No neurotransmitter released to ganglion, therefore no APs to brain.

239
Q

In the light: Phototransduction

A

cGMP low, photoreceptor polarized, no inhibitory information to bipolar cell. Neurotransmitter released to ganglion, therefore APs to brain.

240
Q

Guanyl Cyclase

A

Enzyme that creates cGMP constantly

241
Q

cGMP gated channels

A

opens in response to cGMP allowing entrance of Na+/Ca2+depolarizing the photoreceptor in the dark

242
Q

Photopigment(opsin) and Retinal Unbinding

A

activated by light

243
Q

Transducin

A

G-protein turned on by photopigment

244
Q

cGMP phosphodiesterase

A

Enzyme that breaks down cGMP , cells hyper polarize, turned on by transducin

Physiology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions