Chap 14 Flashcards

1
Q

Typically, what percentage of a sample of human blood is made up of red blood cells?
A) 15%
B) 30%
C) 45%
D) 60%

A

C) 45%

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2
Q

8) What condition involves a decrease in the white blood cell count?
A) Leukopenia
B) Leukocytosis
C) Thrombopenia
D) Anemia
E) Thrombocytosis

A

A) Leukopenia

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3
Q

12) What is a hematocrit?
A) Percent of red blood cells in a blood sample
B) An abnormal red blood cell resulting from a genetic disorder
C) Clotting factor
D) Stem cell that gives rise to the agranulocytes

A

A) Percent of red blood cells in a blood sample

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4
Q

What are the formed elements?
A) Sodium and potassium
B) Blood cells and platelets
C) Bone marrow and the thymus
D) Blood and lymph

A

B) Blood cells and platelets

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5
Q

What type of formed element is most abundant?
A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Platelets

A

A) Red blood cells

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6
Q

What type of blood cell is biconcave and lacks a nucleus when they are mature?
A) White blood cells
B) Red blood cells
C) Platelets
D) Macrophages

A

B) Red blood cells

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7
Q

Which cell type is an agranulocyte?
A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Monocyte

A

D) Monocyte

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8
Q

Which statement describes platelets?
A) Giant multinucleated cells
B) Immature leukocytes
C) Cytoplasmic fragments of cells
D) Lymphoid cells

A

C) Cytoplasmic fragments of cells

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9
Q

What is the primary function of lymphocytes?
A) To phagocytize damaged cells.
B) To produce enzymes that dissolve blood clots.
C) To release substances that initiate blood clots.
D) To act against foreign substances.

A

D) To act against foreign substances

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10
Q

In the absence of__________, vitamin B12 is poorly absorbed. This deficiency can affect
red blood cell production.
A) folic acid
B) erythropoietin
C) intrinsic factor
D) vitamin C

A

C) Intrinsic factor

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11
Q

Iron is a component of what substance?
A) Heme
B) Biliverdin
C) Bilirubin
D) Globin

A

A) Heme

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12
Q

Which of the following functions as a phagocyte?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Eosinophils

A

B) Neutrophils

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13
Q

Cyanosis occurs when the blood concentration of__________ is abnormally high.
A) deoxyhemoglobin
B) oxyhemoglobin
C) carbon dioxide
D) oxygen

A

A) deoxyhemoglobin

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14
Q

What is the underlying cause of sickle cell disease?
A) A deficiency in dietary iron
B) A deficiency in intrinsic factor
C) Overproduction of hemoglobin
D) A genetic mutation

A

D) A genetic mutation

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15
Q

What type of white blood cell is important in immunity?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Monocytes

A

A) Lymphocytes

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16
Q

36) What is diapedesis?
A) The formation of platelets from megakaryocytes.
B) The filling of red blood cells with hemoglobin.
C) The movement of white blood cells through blood vessel walls.
D) The squeezing of red blood cells through narrow capillaries.

A

C) The movement of white blood cells through blood vessel walls

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17
Q

Following an injury, what stimulates the blood vessels in the area to spasm?
A) Antibodies released by lymphocytes
B) Clotting factors released from cells lining the blood vessel wall
C) Serotonin released by platelets
D) Heparin released by eosinophils

A

C) Seritonin released by platelets

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18
Q

Alice has iron deficiency anemia. She takes iron supplements as instructed by a doctor. In
order to improve the absorption of iron, Alice is careful about what she drinks when she
takes her supplement. It is helpful to take the supplement with__________ which
improves absorption. But taking the supplement with__________ will decrease the
absorption of the iron.
A) orange juice; tea
B) tea; milk
C) tea; orange juice
D) milk; orange juice

A

A) Orange juice and tea

19
Q

The hormone__________ controls red blood cell production via a__________ feedback
mechanism.
A) erythropoietin; negative
B) colony-stimulating factor; positive
C) erythropoietin; positive
D) colony-stimulating factor; negative

A

A) Erythropoietin; negative

20
Q

42) Creatinine is an example of what type of plasma component?
A) Plasma proteins
B) Formed elements
C) Blood gases
D) Nonprotein nitrogenous substances

A

D) Nonprotein nitrogenous substances

21
Q

Which plasma protein is described correctly?
A) Albumin: functions in immune responses.
B) Gamma globulin: transports lipids and fat-soluble vitamins.
C) Fibrinogen: functions in blood coagulation.
D) Beta globulins: functions to maintain blood osmotic pressure.

A

C) Fibrinogen: functions in blood coagulation

22
Q

Plasma electrolytes include__________.
A) bicarbonate, magnesium, chloride, and potassium ions
B) monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils
C) fibrinogen, globulins, and albumin
D) creatinine, urea, and uric acid

A

A) bicarbonate, magnesium, chloride, and potassium ions

23
Q

47) John is experiencing pain, nausea, and lack of urination. At the hospital, a blood test
reveals high levels of urea. Which organ is most likely malfunctioning?
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Small intestine

A

C) Kidneys

24
Q

Which of the following is not required for the formation of a blood clot?
A) Calcium
B) Fibrinogen
C) Vitamin K
D) Albumin

A

D) Albumin

25
A blood clot that forms abnormally in a blood vessel is called a(n)__________. A) aneurysm B) embolus C) thrombus D) platelet plug
C) Thrombus
26
Prothrombin time is a blood test used to evaluate the__________. A) intravascular clotting mechanism B) fibrinolysis mechanism C) extrinsic clotting mechanism D) intrinsic clotting mechanism
C) extrinsic clotting mechanism
27
A pulmonary__________ is typically caused by a blood clot reaching a lung via a pulmonary artery. A) embolism B) thrombus C) aneurysm D) infection
A) embolism
28
Thrombocytopenia is due to a deficiency of__________. A) vitamin K B) platelets C) leukocytes D) factor VII
B) platelets
29
As a result of her low platelet count, Marianne has small, bruise-like spots on her skin. What are these spots called? A) Pinpricks B) Blood blisters C) Petechiae D) Hematomas
C) Petechiae
30
What type of antigens are found on the surface of red blood cells of a person with type AB blood? A) Both antigens A and B B) Antigens A only C) Antigens B only D) Neither antigens A nor antigens B
A) Both antigens A and B
31
What is the rarest ABO blood type in the United States? A) Type A B) Type B C) Type AB D) Type O
C) Type AB
32
What determines an individual's blood type? A) Proteins (antibodies) on the surface of red blood cells B) Proteins (antibodies) circulating in blood plasma C) Proteins (antigens) on the surface of white blood cells D) Proteins (antigens) on the surfaces of red blood cells
D) Proteins (antigens) on the surfaces of red blood cells
33
In what situation might erythroblastosis fetalis occur? A) A second Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman B) A first Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman C) A second Rh-negative fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman D) A first Rh-negative fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman
A) A second Rh-positive fetus developing in an Rh-negative woman
34
Which is true about an individual who is Rh-negative? A) Their plasma contains Rh antigens. B) Their red blood cells lack the Rh antigens. C) Their red blood cells lack the Rh antibodies. D) The Rh antigens are present in the plasma, but not on the red blood cells.
B) Their red blood cells lack the Rh antigens
35
A person with type A blood can successfully donate blood to a person with type__________ blood. A) A B) B C) O
A) A
36
71) What blood type can successfully be given to a person with type AB blood? A) Only one of the blood types B) Only two of the blood types C) Only type O blood D) All blood types
D) All blood types
37
72) What are "universal precautions"? A) Specific measures that astronauts take in space to avoid leaving behind microorganisms from Earth. B) Specific measures that health-care workers take to prevent transmission of bloodborne pathogens in the workplace. C) Specific measures used to avoid mismatched blood types in transfusions. D) Specific measures used to prevent bleeding during surgery.
B) Specific measures that health-care workers take to prevent transmission of bloodborne pathogens in the workplace.
38
86) What is the normal pH of blood? A) 6.8 to 7.0 B) 7.0 to 7.2 C) 7.3 to 7.5 D) 7.6 to 7.8
C) 7.3 to 7.5
39
87) What is a normal hematocrit? A) 25% B) 30% C) 45% D) 60%
C) 45%
40
Cyanosis is caused by an increased blood concentration of__________. A) deoxyhemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) carbon dioxide D) carbon monoxide
A) deoxyhemoglobin
41
What element is part of a hemoglobin molecule? A) Cobalt B) Iron C) Copper D) Iodine
B) Iron
42
After seeing a commercial on television about deep vein thrombosis (DVT), Charlie is worried that he might develop it since he takes a medication that increases the risk developing of blood clots. What can he do to reduce the risk of developing DVT? A) Avoid prolonged periods of staying still in one position. B) Stop use of oral antibiotics like tetracycline. C) Stop excessive consumption of vitamin K.
A) Avoid prolonged periods of staying still in one position.
43
Which of the following describes leukemia? A) The blood has too many immature white blood cells. B) The red blood cell count is too low. C) The platelets are malformed and are low in number. D) The red blood cells are misshapen and become lodged in capillaries.
A) The blood has too many immature white blood cells.