Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chegg Decks > CH47_Test_6_deck > Flashcards

CH47_Test_6_deck Flashcards

1
Q

FP:What CDU page lets me designate the fuel in the ERFS tanks as cargo?

A

PERF INITFLPN DATA 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

FP:How many Alternate Flight Plans can be loaded into the CAAS from the mission card?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

FP:How many flight plans can you load into:CAAS - ___Mission card - ___

A

6 (1 active, 6 alternate)11 (1 active, 10 alternate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FP:Which MFD control layer provides access to the USER ACP LIST page?

A

SYS IDX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FP:How many Flight Plan Points (FPPs) can be inserted into an active or alternate flight plan?

A

239 (39 history and 200 future)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FP:What color is the T/O FPP displayed on the active FPLN page?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

FP:Describe the colors associated with the FPPs.

A

Active FPP is displayed white.Future FPPs are displayed magenta.History/From FPPs are displayed cyan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FP:What must be assigned or applied to an ACP to make it a FPP?

A

Specific Mission Requirements (constraints).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FP:Which of the 3 types of flight plans (active, modified, or alternate) lets the pilots change the inbound course to the T/O FPP so the aircraft will cross the FPP at the selected course?

A

Active and Modified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FP:Which CDU pages provides access to the USER ACPS LIST?

A

INDEX 2/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FP:What does the ATTRIBUTE “T” on the FPP line mean?

A

FIXED arrival time designated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FP:What is the maximum number of:USER ACPs - ___TARGET ACPs - ___

A

500100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FP:What CDU page provides access to the MOVING ACP LIST page?

A

PROCEDURES / PATTERNS (FPLN MGMT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FP:Does the active flight plan have to be named?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FP:How many data pages are available for each FPP?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FP:How does CAAS define Mission Requirements or Constraints?

A

TimeSpeedAltitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FP:Once the aircraft is airborne, edits to the active flight plan must be made through the ___ or ___.

A

PERF PROG pagesFPLN DATA pages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

FP:What is the difference between Lead Turn ON and Lead Turn OFF?

A

ON - changes the leg transition type from OVERFLY to FLY-BY.OFF - the leg transition type is OVERFLY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FP:Explain what the OFFSET feature does.

A

A parallel course offset may be applied to the Flight Plan for weather or traffic avoidance. The parallel course offset is specified as a distance left or right of the Flight Plan course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

FP:On the Active Flight Plan page (FPLN), what does typing L0.5 in the scratchpad and selecting LS1 direct the system to do?

A

Offset the FPLN to the left 0.5 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

FP:What does changing a flight plans point inbound course from “360” to “C 330” tell CAAS to do?

A

Manual entry of a curvilinear course.The new inbound course will be established by at least 0.5 NM from the next FPP. Graphical course depiction from the PPSN to the next FPP is available for display on the MFDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FP:Which CDU software partition contains SIDs, STARs, Holding Patterns, Visual and GPS approaches?

A

Commercial Flight Management Function Partition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FP:How many Mark Points are available?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FP:Weight and Moment Arms can be changed for which fuel tanks?

A

ERFS tanks only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FP:The values on PERF INIT pages are derived from the values entered on the ___ or ___.

A

PERF DEFAULTS pageMission Card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

FP:What does the attribute MSD represent if showing by a FPP?

A

The first leg of the missed approach procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FP:TRUE or FALSE. The LIFTOFF RESET function allows the operator to re-establish the start point for the current flight plan.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

FP:On PERF INIT 2/2, if you place a “U” in the OAT bracket at LS2, what have you told the system to do?

A

Update OAT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

FP:In the LIFTOFF state, can the time of departure and mission fuel fields be edited?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

FP:The CDU Commercial Flight Management Function Partition performs enroute navigation and terminal area operation. Name the four operations / procedures it provides.

A

Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)Standard Terminal Approach Routes (STARs)Holding PatternsVisual and GPS approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

FP:On PERF INIT 1/2, if there is a time constraint in the flight plan, how do I tell the system to compute and display the required time of departure?

A

Enter “M” selected RS2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

FPM:Which flight plan page is used to load the active flight plan?

A

FPLM MGMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

FPM:How many different versions of PROGRESS PAGE 2/3 are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

FPM:Which type of flight plan or flight plans can be reversed?

A

Alternate (no civil procedures (SID, STAR, etc.))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

FPM:What happens to all intervening FPPs when conducting a DIRECT-TO to a history FPP?

A

They are retained and moved to future points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

FPM:How can you display the Flight Plan Summary page using the MFD?

A

SYS IDX, FPLN SUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

FPM:What will happen when you select “REPLACE FPLN” on the ALTN MGMT page?

A

Replaces the Active Flight Plan with the Alternate Flight Plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

FPM:When conducting a DIRECT-TO from the MFD FPLN DATA page, how long do you have to confirm the command?

A

3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

FPM:Which CDU page is used to erase the active flight plan?

A

FPLN MGMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

FPM:Which PROGRESS page displays the track angle error and Bearing and Distance (BRG/DIST) information?

A

PROGRESS 1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

FPM:How many alternate flight plans can be loaded into CAAS at one time (not stored on the card)?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

FPM:Which PROGRESS page displays aircraft present position information?

A

PROGRESS 3/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

FPM:What must be removed from an alternate flight plan before the flight plan can be reversed?

A

Civil procedures (SIDs, STARs, Civil approaches)ProceduresPatternsIntercepts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

FPM:Advisories and alerts will be displayed if a flight plan parameter cannot be obtained or aircraft limitation exceedance is required to complete a flight plan leg. What color will be used to display these indications?

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

FPM:Which PROGRESS page displays Top of Descent (TOD) or Bottom of Climb (BOC)?

A

PROGRESS 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

FPM:List two ways to access the Flight Plan Summary page on the MFD.

A

SYS IDX, FPLN SUMCDU FPLN, MFD DATA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

FPM:With an active FPLN displayed on the CDU, selection of which CDU function key displays the Active Flight Plan on the MFD?

A

MFD DATA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

FPM:the ALTN FPLN MGMT page is accessed from which CDU page?

A

INDEX 2/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

FPM:Which CDU page must be accessed to load an Alternate Flight Plan?

A

ALTN MGMT 2/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

FPM:How many Alternate Flight Plans can be stored on the mission card?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

FPM:Which fuel tanks may be designated as USABLE or UNUSABLE for mission planning purposes?

A

AUX tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

FPM:On the FPLN SUMMARY page, bezel key L6 toggles through the flight plans (Active/Modified or Alternate) and the ___.

A

PERF PROG page.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

FPM:Where can Max Endurance airspeed be found?

A

PERF PROG

54
Q

FPM:What letter can be used to change all ERFS tank fuel from Flight Plan (FP) fuel to CARGO fuel?

A

F

55
Q

FPM:On what page will you find how much time you can remain aloft on a single engine?

A

PERF PROG (MFD)

56
Q

FPM:Where would you find MCT TRQ AVL information?

A

PERF PROG (MFD)

57
Q

FPM:TRUE or FALSE. In PERF INIT, selection of L4 with “F” in the scratchpad will “Fill” the selected tank to its max allowable limit.

A

FALSE.

58
Q

FD:The active flight director partition is located in which MFDs?

A

MFDs 1 and 4.

59
Q

FD:Where is the FD CPLR REL switch located?

A

Cyclic.

60
Q

FD:Where is the GO AROUND switch located?

A

Thrust Control Lever (TCL)

61
Q

FD:The GO AROUND function provides guidance cues to achieve a ___ fpm climb, current heading, and ___ knots airspeed.

A

500 fpm80 knots

62
Q

FD:The CH-47F FD system provides the aircrew with guidance information for use in two operating modes. Name the two modes of operation for the FD.

A

Command and Coupled.

63
Q

FD:Will the GO AROUND switch work with the DAFCS selector switch in the OFF position?

A

YES.

64
Q

FD:Select the correct label for each of the four symbols:(triangle) ||–w–o– o –o(diamond) –w–o– |o| –o

A

Large Thrust increase requiredAdjust pitchSmall Thrust reduction requiredAdjust pitch and roll.

65
Q

FD:Identify the difference between a FD arm annunciator and captured annunciator.

A

White annunciators on the left side of the VSD refer to armed modes.Green annunciators on the right side of the VSD refer to captured modes.

66
Q

FD:Which CDU page must be accessed to set the Track Select reference setting?

A

FD Select page

67
Q

FD:On which CDU page is ILS Decision Height entered?

A

VOR/ILS Control Page

68
Q

FD:What altitude (BARO ALT or RAD ALT) is captured when the THOV mode is activated solely by pressing the MFD bezel key on the MFD FD page (be specific)?

A

Current Radar Altitude.

69
Q

FD:What are the FD Vertical modes?

A

BARO ALTGPS ALTRALTVSPD

70
Q

FD:What heading or track is captured when the pilot selects the HDG or TRK function key from the FD control layer on the MFD?

A

Current

71
Q

FD:What are the FD approach modes?

A

VORILSILS Back CourseTCNTACAN Point-to-Point (TCNP)

72
Q

FD:On the MFD FD page, the actual groundspeed displays with a white box around it and the reference groundspeed displays in which color?

A

Magenta.

73
Q

FD:Which MFD control layer must be selected to allow selection of Vertical Speed Hold?

A

FD.

74
Q

FD:Once the FPLN mode is captured, what change occurs to the FPLN bezel key label?

A

Surrounded by a green box.

75
Q

FD:What is the only FD selectable function that is not selected from the MFD FD control layer?

A

Go Around (TCL)

76
Q

FD:The RALT/BALT TRANS advisory has become active. What does this mean?

A

Radar altitude mode as failed and system has switch to Barometric altitude reference.

77
Q

FD:Which advisory/annunciation displays if selection of a FD mode is attempted when required sensor data is not available?

A

FUNCTION INOP.

78
Q

FD:Which advisory/annunciation displays if a conflict exists between primary and alternate FD sources?

A

FD DISAGREE.

79
Q

FD:Which fail flag appears when the ILS localizer course source is invalid?

A

ILS Course Source.

80
Q

FD:Match the correct Advisory/Annunciator to its definition:Conflict exists between primary and alternate FD sources - ___Radar altitude mode has failed and system has switched to Barometric altitude reference - ___Selection of an FD mode is attempted when required sensor data is not available - ___Advanced Flight Control System has been selected for coupling - ___

A

FD DISAGREE.RALT/BALT TRANS.FUNCTION INOP.AFCS COUPLED.

81
Q

DM:List two things that are stored on the MMS.

A

Digital Map and Terrain Data

82
Q

DM:The Embedded Digital Map Generator is located inside which core CAAS component?

A

GPPU

83
Q

DM:What core CAAS component stores Digital Map and terrain elevation data?

A

MMS

84
Q

DM:TRUE or FALSE. The TACMAP is only displayed in full screen with HSD off.

A

TRUE.

85
Q

DM:What is the default map channel for each MFD?

A

Channel 1 - Default MFDs 2, 4, and 5.Channel 2 - Default MFDs 1 and 3.

86
Q

DM:Name all of the flight plan types that can be displayed on the Digital Map?

A

ActiveModifiedAlternate

87
Q

DM:Where are the Digital Map function keys located?

A

Left and Right on MFD.

88
Q

DM:Describe the Control Image Base (CIB) mode.

A

Contains high resolution digital satellite images that have been merged together. The aerial images are rectified grayscale.

89
Q

DM:What are the names of each of the three movable map modes?

A

CHARTDTED (Digital Terrain Elevation Data)CIB (Controlled Image Base)

90
Q

DM:Describe the Digital Terrain Elevation (DTED) mode.

A

Shows terrain and elevation. DTED maps also contain a matrix or grid of evenly spaced elevation points that are used with onboard systems to determine actual terrain elevation.

91
Q

DM:Which bezel key accesses the two Overlay (OVLY) control layers?

A

B4

92
Q

DM:How many Map Control layers are available for the Digital Map?

A

Two

93
Q

DM:How many moving map modes are available?

A

Three.

94
Q

DM:The CDU control function (bezel key labeled CDU) is available on which Map Control layer?

A

Map Control 2/2, PLAN ALT

95
Q

DM:What is the only function that asks for confirmation before processing the request from the tactical overlay?

A

Hidden Symbol Control.

96
Q

DM:Which MFD page/layer must be selected to toggle the SYMB (symbol filters) between ALL, NONE, or FLTR (filter)?

A

OVLY 2

97
Q

DM:What happens when the Navigation Symbology function is selected in Overlay 1?

A

Navigation symbols that are not part of the active flight plan are displayed.(Displays or removes navigation symbology).

98
Q

DM:Name at least two ways the SLEW function can be turned on?

A

Performing a CENTER ON function.Performing a Flight Plan Navigate (look ahead) function.Selecting the SLEW OFF bezel key on Map Control layer 2/2.

99
Q

DM:TRUE or FALSE. Position update is only available when GPS AIDING is deselected.

A

TRUE.

100
Q

DM:What must the operator do before the TDL MARK report can be accessed from the DIG MAP MENU?

A

Log in.

101
Q

DM:What function accesses a lower priority menu under a currently hooked point?

A

When the NEXT option is selected the priority level of hooked objects moves down one step.

102
Q

DM:When using the Flight Plan Navigation (look ahead) function, what happens to the SLEW feature?

A

SLEW is automatically engaged.

103
Q

DM:On which MFD page/layer are you able to select the CDI source and bearing pointers?

A

OVLY 1.

104
Q

DM:How many independent video channels are available for display on the CH-47F?

A

2

105
Q

DM:Which CDU page is used to change the digital map center of interest?

A

DIG MAP 1/2 control page.

106
Q

DM:To change a FRAME image using the CDU, which CDU page must be displayed?

A

DIG MAP 2/2

107
Q

DM:DIG MAP control and DIG MAP video can be accessed from which CDU page access key?

A

SENSOR MENUSNSR function key on the CDU

108
Q

DM:What is automatically engaged when you perform a CENTER ON function with the CDU?

A

SLEW

109
Q

DM:YES or NO. Does the active flight plan have to be displayed on the map to perform a DIRECT TO?

A

NO.The DIRECT TO function will force the flight plan to display on the MFD if not already displayed. If a FPLN doesn’t exist in CAAS, then a flight plan cannot be displayed and will be initiated when DIRECT TO function is completed.

110
Q

DM:Which switch is used on the Vertical MFCU to change the modes of operations between M (map), D (display), and H (hud)?

A

S4 switch.

111
Q

DM:How do you identify if an object can be HOOKED with the track cursor when using the MFCU?

A

Green highlight box when the track cursor is in close proximity.

112
Q

DM:The DRAW MODE is selected from which MFD MAP CONTROL LAYER?

A

MAP CONTROL 2/2

113
Q

DM:List 3 of the 5 shapes (graphics) that can be drawn on the Digital Map with the MFCU or the CDU?

A

PointEllipseRectangleLineArea

114
Q

DM:When creating an Ellipse with the CDU, what is the default line color assigned to this shape?

A

Red

115
Q

DM:The TIV WARN caution flashes for 30 seconds when the aircraft position is within ___ of a threat.

A

Lethality Range.

116
Q

DM:Explain the difference between the annunciators SYMBOL DB FULL and SYMBOL DB NEAR FULL.

A

FULL - tactical symbol data base has reached capacityNEAR FULL - tactical symbol data base is 95% capacity.

117
Q

DM:Where can you find the tactical graphics (what reference)?

A

Appendix D of the Operators Manual.

118
Q

AMPS:Does the FalconView software have to be open when using AMPS AWE software?

A

YES

119
Q

AMPS:At Fort Novosel, how do you update the Xplan updates?

A

EASE Client tool

120
Q

AMPS:How do you verify that FalconView products are up to date?

A

Look at System Health under Data Administration.

121
Q

AMPS:How is Premission accessed from FalconView?

A

Selecting Mission Editor icon from the Editors tab and selecting the P icon on the right hand side of the screen

122
Q

AMPS:In AMPS AWE, __ is the max. number of FM presets that can be saved to the mission card.

A

20

123
Q

AMPS:A maximum of ___ ADF presets can be written to the mission card using AMPS AWE.

A

20

124
Q

AMPS:How many target points can be loaded to the mission card?

A

100

125
Q

AMPS:A mission card can include ___ active and ___ alternate routes.

A

110

126
Q

AMPS:___ is the maximum number of presets of VOR/ILS that be loaded on the mission card.

A

20

127
Q

AMPS:___, ___, ___, and ___ are the categories in Aircraft Display Settings that can be customize what is displayed on the MFD and CDU.

A

Mission Page SetupSymbology DeclutterMFD DeclutterASE Management.

128
Q

AMPS:___ ACP points are the maximum number of points that can be written to the mission card.

A

500

129
Q

AMPS:___ pages is the maximum number of Mission Pages that can be created.

A

6

130
Q

AMPS:If a route has errors when imported, how will you know there are errors?

A

Any error detected in each route will be displayed with a red square with a whit X or a yellow triangle with an exclamation mark.

Chegg Decks (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions