CH47 Night DQs

Question 1

What are the general procedures when conducting a light degradation/compatibility check for supplemental cockpit lighting?

Answer 1

– The check must be conducted @ night, in an A/C located in an area of low ambient light with interior lighting set for NVG operations, and with ANVIS prepared for use.
– Position reflective material 12-18 in. from eyes, shine supplemental light, look at resultant reflection on windscreen with unaided eye and ANVIS.
– If it does not interfere with operator, it is ACCEPTABLE.

Question 2

Explain how the Automatic Brightness Control (ABC) and Bright Source Protection (BSP) work on the ANVIS.

Answer 2

– ABC - As light levels increase above approx. 50% illum., the ABC circuit starts to automatically adjust the MCP voltage to maintain NVG image brightness w/in set limits. This function causes the NVG to “gain up/down” according to light level.

– BSP - The BSP circuit acts to limit the # of electrons leaving the photocathode (and protect the intensifier) by reducing the voltage between the photocathode and the input side of the MCP. Automatically activates when high input light levels cause excessive photocathode current to flow.

Question 3

What are the mechanical functions of the ANVIS?

Answer 3

They allow for differences in physical features of individual operators and provide for operating the system.
– On-Off power
– Adjustment for eye-span distance
– Vertical Travel
– Tilt Angle
– Fore and Aft adjustment for eye relief
– Eyepiece Focus
– Objective Lens Focus

Question 4

What are the operational defects associated with the ANVIS?

Answer 4

– Shading - indicative of dying photocathode causes by defective vacuum seal of image intensifier.
– Edge Glow - defective phosphor screen that permits light feedback to photocathode.
– Emission Points - debris left during the manufacturing process.
– Flashing, flickering, intermittent operation - Loose wires, loose battery cap/door, weak batteries.

Question 5

What are the cosmetic blemishes associated with the ANVIS?

Answer 5

– Image Distortion
– Fixed Pattern Noise
– Image Disparity
– Chicken Wire
– Bright Sports
– Output Brightness Variation
– Black Spots

Question 6

What is the maximum allowable counterweight to be used with the ANVIS?

Answer 6

– The attached bag should never weigh more than 22 oz. (624 g).
– The recommended initial weight for the ANVIS is 12 oz. (340 g), but use of counterweight is not required.

Question 7

When does the optimal sight picture occur when looking through the ANVIS?

Answer 7

The optimal sight picture occurs when the optical axes of the ANVIS is aligned with your visual line of sight and the ANVIS’ eyepieces are at the max. distance from your eyes that still allows you to see the intensified image full field of view.

Question 8

Explain dark adaptation and how long it takes to reach optimal night vision acuity.

Answer 8

– Dark adaptation is the process by which the eyes become more sensitive to low levels of illumination. Rhodopsin (visual purple) is the substance in the rods responsible for light sensitivity.

– Dark adaptation for optimal night vision acuity approaches its max. level in about 30-45 minutes under minimal lighting conditions.

Question 9

What protective equipment is used to protect against the loss of night vision?

Answer 9

– Sunglasses - military issued, ND-15, or equivalent filter lenses.
– Red-Lens Goggles - reduce dark adaptation time and can preserve up to 90% dark adaptation.
– Supplemental Oxygen Equipment - when flying at or above 4000’ PA.

Question 10

Name and describe the three types of vision.

Answer 10

– Photopic - Occurs in daylight or bright light, produces sharp images and color vision, requires use of central vision, involves cones only.

– Mesopic - Occurs at dawn, dusk, and in full moonlight, reduces color vision and visual acuity, involves both rods and cones.

– Scotopic - Occurs on dimly lit nights, decreases visual acuity, causes loss of color perception, causes night blind spot, requires use of peripheral vision and recognition of object silhouettes, involves rods only.

Question 11

Explain the Day and Night Blind spots.

Answer 11

– Day Blind Spot - covers an area of 5.5-7.5* and is located about 15* from the fovea, originating where the optic nerve attaches to the retina (no cones or rods at attachment point).

– Night Blind Spot - occurs when the fovea becomes inactive in low light conditions and involves an area from 5-10* wide in the center of the visual field. If an object is detected, it will fade away when stared at longer than 2 sec. The size increases as the distance between the eyes and object increases.

Question 12

According to AR 95-1, when operating with NVGs, at low altitudes where the flash from the bottom anti-collision light is reflecting back into the cockpit, can you turn off the bottom anti-collision light?

Answer 12

– Anti-collision lights will be on when A/C engines are operating, except when conditions may cause vertigo or other hazards to safety.
– In short, yes.

Question 13

Describe the use of the MODE SEL switch on the PLT LTG panel.

Answer 13

– 3 position toggle switch labeled DAY, NIGHT, and NVG.
– Depending on the position selected, it will affect the intensity of the lighting or the different panels. Also, it will affect the intensity of the MASTER CAUTION light and FIRE PULL handles.

Question 14

What are the WARNINGS in the -10 regarding the searchlights?

Answer 14

– The pilot’s and copilot’s searchlights have both white and IR LED lamps. The IR lamp emits IR rays which may be hazardous to personnel looking directly at the light. Never look directly at the searchlight when in IR mode w/out wearing NVGs. Do not touch the searchlight during or just after lamp operation due to the heat generated by the lamp.

– Use caution when utilizing the white searchlight while using NVGs. Under some conditions, the white light may impair visibility to the point of creating a hazardous condition.

Question 15

Explain the factors affecting object visibility.

Answer 15

Object visibility increases as:
– Object angular size increases and distance between the object and viewer decreases.
– Ambient light illumination (overall brightness) increases.
– Degree of retinal adaptation increases.
– Color and Contrast between the object and background increases.
– Object position w/in the visual field (visibility threshold) increases.
– Eye focus and viewing time increases.
– Atmospheric clarity increases; neutral density (ND-15) sunglasses can aid visibility in excessive light or bright conditions.

Question 16

In your own words, what are the N/NVG considerations for Task 1040: Perform Visual Meteorological Conditions Takeoff?

Answer 16

– If there is enough illumination to view obstacles, T/O in the same way as you would during the day, but treat shadows as obstacles.

– If there is not enough illumination, perform an altitude-over-airspeed T/O (leaning more towards a constant angle or vertical T/O).Maintain T/O power until reaching climb A/S, maintain ground track, proper scan to avoid SD, and use searchlights as needed.

Question 17

What should you do when you’re hovering at night and you become disoriented because of tall grass?

Answer 17

If disorientation occurs, P* will perform any of the following:
– Apply sufficient PWR and execute an ITO (Task 1170).
– Arm the appropriate DAFCS HVR Modes.
– If T/O is not feasible, try to maneuver the A/C forward and down to the ground, to limit the possibility of touchdown with sideward or rearward movement.
– The P will take the flight controls and fly utilizing symbology or outside reference.

Question 18

What are the unaided night vision scanning techniques used with the reduced visual acuity present during lower light levels?

Answer 18

Stop-turn-stop-turn motion scanning technique should be used during unaided flight. It is important to stop between the turns long enough to allow your eyes to detect and focus on objects in the environment.

Question 19

What cues help you compensate for loss of distance estimation and depth perception for objects far away at low light levels?

Answer 19

Binocular cues and Monocular cues:
– Geometric Perspective (Linear Perspective / Apparent Foreshortening / Vertical Position in the Field)

– Retinal Image Size (Known Size of Objects / Increasing and Decreasing Size / Terrestrial Association / Overlapping Contours)

– Aerial Perspective (Fading of Color or Shades / Loss of Detail or Texture / Light Source Position and Shadow Direction)

– Motion Parallax

Question 20

As you fly closer to an open field, what will happen to its apparent size and what distance estimation and depth perception cue is this?

Answer 20

– As the distance to the object or terrain feature decreases, the apparent perspective changes to its true shape or form.
– This is Apparent Foreshortening.

Question 21

What distance estimation and depth perception cue explains when you go from a 10’ hover to an 80’ hover and you are not able to distinguish clearly the grass or weeds in the hover area?

Answer 21

– Loss of Detail or Texture
– The further an observer is from an object, the less apparent discrete details become.

Question 22

What is the perception you are experiencing when on an approach to a landing area that is lit and during the approach the lights disappear or start to flicker?

Answer 22

– Overlapping Contours (Interposition of Objects)
– When objects overlap, the overlapped object is further away.

Question 23

Explain the procedures for an NVG failure.

Answer 23

1. Announce ANVIS/goggle failure by crew station.
2. If P* experiences ANVIS failure, transfer control to P if applicable.
3. Troubleshoot ANVIS failure.
4. Announce results of troubleshooting.

Question 24

In your own words, what are the N/NVG considerations for Task 1184: Respond to Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions?

Answer 24

– While using NVGs, you may be able to see through thin fog or drizzle with minimal degradation. You can flip up the NVGs once flight is stabilized.

– NOTE - Spatial D. may occur if you enter IMC conditions with the IR searchlight or landing light on.

Question 25

What are the visual illusions in the Aeromedical TC?

Answer 25

– Confusion with Ground Lights (with stars)
– Height-Depth Perception (loss of visual cues)
– Autokinesis (single light appears to move)
– Fascination/Fixation (task saturation/target fixation)
– False Horizons (sloping cloud deck/terrain, reduced visibility)
– Crater Illusion (IR down, think you’re higher)
– Vection (induced motion)
– Structural (precipitation and heat waves)
– Size-Distance (compare unfamiliar with familiar)
– Size-Constancy, Shape-Constancy, Aerial Perspective

Question 26

Flying with NVGs, you are at a stationary hover in the LZ when another aircraft approaches you from your left rear with its searchlight on. You look to your right front and notice your shadow is moving to your right rear and your body feels as if you are moving forward and left. What is this perception known as?

Answer 26

– Vection (induced motion illusion)
– Falsely perceived motion of oneself when no physical motion is actually occurring.

Question 27

During a roll-on landing at night, what should you consider before descending below obstacles?

Answer 27

Altitude, apparent ground speed, and rate of closure are difficult to estimate when making an approach to an area of limited contrast (at night). The P* will determine the need for artificial lighting and avoid abrupt attitude changes at low altitudes.

Question 28

What self-imposed stressor impairs visual sensitivity the most at night?

Answer 28

– Of all the self-imposed stressors, cigarette smoking impairs visual sensitivity @ night the most.

– Smoking increases CO, which in turn reduces the blood’s capacity to carry O2. Hypemic Hypoxia, a condition that negatively affects an individual’s peripheral vision and dark adaptation, results from this increase in CO.

Question 29

List the visual deficiencies and surgical procedures that can affect night vision.

Answer 29

Visual Deficiencies:
– Myopia (nearsightedness)
– Hyperopia (farsightedness)
– Astigmatism (inability to focus different meridians simultaneously)
– Presbyopia (lens hardening)
– Retinal Rivalry (eyes attempt to simultaneously perceive 2 dissimilar objects independently)

Surgical Procedures:
– PRK
– LEK
– LASIK

Question 30

At night during a VMC approach, when should you determine the need for use of the searchlight?

Answer 30

– Surrounding terrain or vegetation may decrease contrast and cause degraded depth perception during the approach.
– Before descending below obstacles, determine the need for artificial lighting.

Question 31

What are the Night/NVG Considerations for a Terrain Flight Deceleration?

Answer 31

Due to the limited FOV of the NVG, the P* must avoid abrupt changes in A/C attitude. An extreme nose-high attitude limits the forward FOV and may cause disorientation. The P* should maintain proper scanning techniques to ensure obstacle avoidance and clearance.

Question 32

What is the emergency procedure for ENG1 or ENG2 XMSN Warning?

Answer 32

1. EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (affected engine)
2. “F” Affected ENG XMSN - Check (visually check for fire)
   LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Subsequent actions:
After landing:
EMER ENG SHUTDOWN
– NOTE - ENG XMSN warning illuminates at oil temp of 190* C, rate of shutdown is crucial to avoid fire.
– NOTE - Twisting the FIRE PULL handle during this emergency will have little to no effect if a fire is present.

Question 33

What are the three types of Spatial Disorientation?

Answer 33

– Type I - Unrecognized
– Type II - Recognized
– Type III - Incapacitating

Question 34

Describe the use and location of the two types of formation lights on the CH-47F.

Answer 34

– Electroluminescent Panels - 5 total (3 panels which form an equilateral triangle aft of the FWD pylon & 2 panels on top of the AFT pylon, aft of the anti-collision light) Used for unaided night formation operations.

– NVG Formation Lights - 8 total (each side of FWD pylon, 2 on each side of the fuselage, & 2 on AFT pylon (1 aft of anti-collision light & 1 on vertical panel @ the rear of pylon)). Used for NVG formation operations.

Question 35

What will happen to the glare-shield and overhead flood lights if there is an electrical failure?

Answer 35

When the MODE SEL switch is set to NIGHT or NVG, loss of the 28 volt No.1 DC bus or loss of the 115 volt No.1 AC bus will cause the glareshield and overhead floodlights to automatically illuminate.

Question 36

What is the emergency procedure for FWD XMSN LOW OIL PRESS?

Answer 36

1. Altitude - Descend to minimum safe altitude
2. A/S - 100 KCAS or Vne, whichever is slower
   LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Question 37

What is the emergency procedure for AFT XMSN OIL HOT?

Answer 37

Actions:
1. Electrical Load - Reduce as required.
2. Turn off or pull CBs of non-essential circuits.
3. EAPS ENG 1/2 FAN switches - OFF as required.
4. ANTI-ICE - OFF as required.
5. Searchlights - OFF as required.
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

NOTE - Load shedding should be considered by the crew and chosen with respect to current A/C operating conditions and mission compatibility.

Question 38

Vestibular Illusions:
Describe Somatogyral illusions.

Answer 38

– Somatogyral Illusions: Give the false sensation (misperception of direction or magnitude) of rotation and occur due to the semicircular canal’s inability to accurately register sustained angular velocity (prolonged rotation).
– Leans, Graveyard spiral, Coriolis Illusion, and Post-roll (Gillingham) illusions.

Question 39

Vestibular Illusions:
Describe Somatogravic Illusions.

Answer 39

– Somatogravic Illusions: Caused when changes in gravity or linear acceleration stimulate the otolith organ which responds to gravitoinertial force (both gravity and linear acceleration/deceleration), not gravity alone. These generally result in a false sensation of body tilt as a result of the misperception of the resulting vector of the inertial and gravity as the true vertical.
– G-Excess illusion and Elevator Illusion.

Question 40

Vestibular Illusions:
Describe Oculoargravic Illusions

Answer 40

– Oculoargravic Illusions: These illusions occur due to the misperception of a fixed object (such as an instrument panel) relative to the pilot during change of direction of gravoinertial force. This is likely due to reflexive desire to maintain visual fixation.

Question 41

What is the emergency procedure for an ENG FIRE in flight?

Answer 41

1. “F” Engine Fire - Confirm.
2. EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (Affected ENG)
   LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.

Subsequent Actions:
– Close cockpit windows, air control handles, and cockpit knobs.
–Execute SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION as required.

After Landing:
–EMER ENG SHUTDOWN

Question 42

What are the visual acuities of the ANVIS system under maximum illumination, lowest light, and low-contrast flight conditions?

Answer 42

– 20/25 - standard 100% illumination and a high contrast environment.
– 20/70 - 0% illumination with overcast skies and no cultural lighting.
– Deteriorate to 20/200 or worse - Low-contrast environments (snow-covered territory, sandy deserts, large bodies of water, grassy hills).

Question 43

What are the natural and artificial light sources?

Answer 43

Natural:
– Lunar (moonlight)
– Solar
– Starlight
– Sky Glow

Artificial:
– Flares
– Laser pointers / illuminators
– Aircraft lighting systems
– Weapon effects

Question 44

What weather/meteorological conditions can effect light levels, and/or visual acuity, during night flight and list the weather conditions that contribute to these conditions?

Answer 44

– Clouds (water vapor)
– Fog (closer to ground)
– Rain (droplet size and density)
– Snow (density)
– Sand, dust, and other obscurants (particle size and density)

Question 45

What is the emergency procedure for an Electrical Fire in Flight?

Answer 45

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Actions: (if LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE cannot be made):
1. A/S - below 100 KCAS or Vne, whichever is slower.
2. GEN 1/2 switches - OFF
3. Close cockpit windows, air control handles, and cockpit knobs.
4. Execute SMOKE AND FUME ELIMINATION - as required.

After landing:
5. EMER ENG SHUTDOWN
6. BATT switch - OFF

Question 46

What is an APART? When is your APART period?

Answer 46

– Annual Proficiency and Readiness Test
– Mandatory process that measures an ACM’s individual and crew proficiency. It consists of a standardization flight evaluation, NVG flight evaluation, MTP evaluation, annual written examination, and an instrument flight evaluation that must be passed annually.

– The APART period is the 3-month period ending on the last day of the ACM’s birth month.

Question 47

What are your NVG currency requirements as an RL1 aviator?

Answer 47

– To be considered NVG current, ACMs will participate in a one-hour flight, at least once every 60 days, in their aircraft category while wearing NVG.
– Rated aviators will occupy a crew station with access to the flight controls.

Question 48

After signing into your new unit, when does a commander’s evaluation have to be conducted?

Answer 48

– The commander’s evaluation must occur w/in 45 calendar days after the ACM signs into the unit or after the effective date of his or her flying status orders, whichever occurs last.
– After 45 days, if the commander’s evaluation has not determined an RL status, the ACM will be designated RL3.

Question 49

When a RCM reaches their new duty station following IERW, what RL level will they be designated?

Answer 49

RCMs on their first assignment following IERW course or A/C qualification course for a new A/C design will be designated RL3 based solely on a records review. These ACMs must receive a PFE for designation other than RL3.

Question 50

What FAC level must you be assigned when you arrive at your unit after flight school and what FAC flying hour minimums will you be assessed?

Answer 50

– RCMs w/ less than 3 years in their initial operational assignment will be assigned to FAC 1 or FAC 2 positions, but will be assigned FAC 1 flying hour minimums.
– These RCMs will not be assigned to FAC 3/4 positions, except those granted an exception to policy by the Army Command.

Question 51

What are the minimum requirements for an initial PFE?

Answer 51

– If the initial RL cannot be determined by the records review, or if the commander desires, the ACM will undergo a PFE.
– This PFE will consist of tasks listed on the MTL and may consist of additional tasks determined by the evaluator or commander.

Question 52

What is the time frame to progress from RL3 to RL2 to RL1 for Active Army?

Answer 52

– 90 consecutive days to progress from one RL level to the next.
– If all 90 days are not used when progressing from RL3 to RL2, the remainder of the 90 days can be applied for progression from RL2 to RL1, thus allowing more time for tactical and collective task training.