CH47 Contact DQs

Question 1

What are the definitions of “WARNINGS,” “CAUTIONS,” and “NOTES” in the operator’s manual?

Answer 1

– WARNING - An operating procedure, practice, condition or statement, which if not correctly followed, could result in personal injury or loss of life.
– CAUTION - An operating procedure, practice, etc., which if not strictly observed, could result in damage to or destruction of equipment.
– NOTE - An operating procedure, condition, etc., which is essential to highlight.

Question 2

Where does the APU get it’s fuel?

Answer 2

From the left main tank

Question 3

Where is the APU ESU located and what does it do?

Answer 3

– Left side of the cabin above the ramp
– Monitors APU sequencing operation (continuously compares APU speed and exhaust gas temp.) (if a limit is exceeded, it will automatically shut down the APU).

Question 4

What is the difference between angle of incidence and angle of attack?

Answer 4

– AOI is a mechanical angle - angle between the chord line and the rotational relative wind (tip-path-plane).
– AOA is an aerodynamic angle - angle between chord line and resultant relative wind.

Question 5

How is dissymmetry-of-lift compensated for in a tandem rotor helicopter with a fully articulated rotor system?

Answer 5

– Automatic cyclic-feathering systems are installed on tandem-rotor helicopters. These systems are activated through computer-generated commands at specified airspeeds, usually starting around 70 knots.
– At low airspeeds, blade flapping compensates for DOL. As airspeed increases, these systems program allowing a more level fuselage attitude and reduce stresses on the rotor driving mechanism.

Question 6

During run-up, prior to engine start, how are the flight control hydraulics pressurized?

Answer 6

Each flight hydraulic system is connected to a Power Transfer Unit (PTU) which allows ground checkout of the flight control systems with the rotors stopped.

Question 7

Below what pressure altitude will the engine driven fuel pumps draw fuel from the main tanks if both main fuel pumps fail?

Answer 7

6000’ PA

Question 8

What is the emergency procedure for an ENG1 FUEL PRESS LO or ENG2 FUEL PRESS LO Caution?

Answer 8

XFEED Switch - OPEN (above 6000’ PA)

Question 9

What is the emergency procedure for L FUEL LVL and ENG2 FUELL PRESS LO Caution?

Answer 9

– XFEED Switch - CLOSE
– LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Question 10

Explain GO/NO GO Torque.

Answer 10

The GO/NO GO torque value is proportional to the MAX TQ AVAIL (10 MIN) at OGE. That is, if the value is exceeded at the desired HVR altitude, then MAX TQ AVAIL (10 MIN) will be exceeded if OGE maneuvers are attempted. OGE maneuvers should not be attempted if GO/NO GO torque is exceeded.

Question 11

Explain Validation Factor.

Answer 11

– Validation factor is a TQ value that is equal to your max allowable GWT for your mission profile based on departure conditions.
– If this value is exceeded prior to obtaining a desired wheel height HVR altitude, then the aircraft GWT must be adjusted (unloading cargo, passengers, or fuel) to ensure the aircraft is kept within the current operator’s manual limitations.

Question 12

What is the maximum time for the pitot heat switch to be ON while on the ground and does this switch heat anything else?

Answer 12

– Shall not be on for more than 5 minutes on the ground.
– Pitot tubes, DAFCS yaw ports, static ports, and tubing.

Question 13

What are the ground operation limitations for the CH-47F?

Answer 13

– Right or left directional pedal - 0.75 inches
– Aft cyclic - 2.00 inches
– Lateral cyclic - 1.00 inch
– TCL - no lower than ground detent

Question 14

When are taxi directors and/or blade watchers required?

Answer 14

If necessary to taxi when less than 75 feet clearance exists between the centerline of the helicopter and obstruction.

Question 15

How long is the aircraft from aft rotor tip to forward rotor tip with the rotor blades turning?

Answer 15

98 feet 10.7 inches

Question 16

When do you have to check the FWD, COMB, and AFT XMSN oil levels after shutdown?

Answer 16

– ENG & COMB - check oil level within 30 minutes of shutdown.
– FWD & AFT - check oil level after aircraft has been shut down for 30 minutes.

Question 17

At what fuel quantity will the L FUEL LVL or R FUEL LVL be displayed on the WCA page (include NOTE)?

Answer 17

– When there is approximately 20% of fuel remaining in the main tank (320-420 lbs.)
– CAAS displays a caution, L/R FUEL LVL, when the engines are running and the DCU reported left or right main fuel tank quantity is less <= 360 lbs. for more than 2 seconds.

Question 18

The L FWD AUX PRESS advisory light activates during flight. What is the first thing you should do on seeing this advisory?
After seeing this, you see the L FWD AUX FUEL tank indicates 400 lbs. You carry out the checklist actions, but the fuel remains unusable. What should you do with the fuel pump switch?

Answer 18

– FUEL quantity - Check
– AUX FUEL PUMP switch(es) (inoperative pump(s)) - OFF

Question 19

With an AUX Fuel Pump failed with 400 lbs. of fuel remaining, what considerations do you have regarding the total fuel indicated on the fuel page?

Answer 19

Treat the 400 lbs. as unusable and subtract it from the total (make it unusable in the CDU).

Question 20

Where are the cross-feed fuel valve warning lights located on the aircraft and what do they indicate?

Answer 20

– Two press-to-test XFEED fuel valve warning lights are located at STA 500 on each side of the helicopter adjacent to their respective XFEED valve.
– They indicate the operating condition of the individual XFEED valve and associated circuity.

Question 21

Under what conditions will the XFEED fuel valve warning lights illuminate?

Answer 21

– Any time the XFEED switch is manipulated
– When a short circuit occurs
– When the valve protection relay fails.

Question 22

Where can you find the list of fuels that may be used in a CH-47F?

Answer 22

– TM 1-1520-271-10-2 (operator’s manual)
– Table 2-39 - JP-4 equivalent fuel
– Table 2-40 - JP-5, JP-8, or F-24 equivalent fuel.

Question 23

What is the difference between Commercial Grade A and A+ fuel?

Answer 23

”+” means the fuel has icing inhibitor added.

Question 24

What protective clothing and equipment will all crewmembers wear while performing crew duties?

Answer 24

– ID tags.
– Under layer clothing made of cotton, wool, nomex, or materials approved.
– Flight suit.
– Boots.
– Flight gloves.
– Flight helmet.

– Items of clothing for specific geographic areas as listed in the appropriate CTAs are also authorized when required by climatic conditions and approved by appropriate authorities.

Question 25

What is the emergency procedure for ENG OIL CAUTIONS?

Answer 25

If engine is not required for flight:
– EMER ENG SHUTDOWN (affected engine)

Urgency to land:
– LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE - if engine power is required for flight
– LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE - if engine power is not required for flight

Question 26

When will the caution lights for ENG Oil Low Quantity, High Temperature, or Low/High Pressure activate?

Answer 26

– ENG 1/2 OIL LVL LO - about 2 quarts of usable oil remain the respective engine oil tank.
– ENG 1/2 OIL HOT - oil temp. in the affected engine is at or above 149* C.
– ENG 1/2 OIL PRESS LO - oil pressure is below that which is required for the current NG speed in the affected engine.
– ENG 1/2 OIL PRESS HI - oil pressure in the affected engine is greater than 90 psi.

Question 27

When has a rotor overspeed occured?

Answer 27

When NR exceeds 111.5%.

Question 28

When may a NP overspeed exist?

Answer 28

– A power turbine (NP) overspeed may exist, depending on power being used when 106% NP is exceeded.
– Maximum limit for NP is 111.5%

Question 29

When has an NG overspeed occured?

Answer 29

When a speed of 111% NG is exceeded.

Question 30

Define Ground resonance.

Answer 30

– Ground resonance may develop in helicopters having fully articulated rotor systems when a series of shocks causes the rotor blades in the system to become positioned in unbalanced displacement.

– If this oscillating condition progresses, it can be self-energizing and extremely dangerous; it can easily cause structural failure.

Question 31

Identify the causes of Ground Resonance.

Answer 31

– Defective drag dampers allowing excessive lead and lag and creating angular unbalance.
– Improperly serviced or defective landing-gear struts.
– Hard landings on one skid or wheel.
– Ground taxiing over rough terrain.
– Hesitant or bouncing landings.

Question 32

Identify the contributing factors and corrective action for Ground Resonance.

Answer 32

– Ground resonance occurs when the helicopter contacts the ground during landing or T/O. If one wheel of the helicopter strikes the ground ahead of the others, a shock is transmitted through the fuselage to the rotor.
– Corrective action may consist of an immediate T/O to a hover or a change in rotor RPM to alleviate the condition and disrupt the pattern of oscillation.

Question 33

Describe where the Proximity Switches are located and how they enhance ground handling.

Answer 33

– Proximity switches are installed on each aft landing gear. Each switch is activated when its associated shock strut is compressed during touchdown.
– When activated, signals from both switches are sent to the DAFCS to improve ground handling by reducing pitch axis gain of the DAFCS, cancelling stick input to the DASH actuators, and by driving both LCT actuators to the ground position.

Question 34

Describe the functions of the Left and Right WOW switches (include table and paragraph items).

Answer 34

Left:
– DAFCS 1 and 2
– Maintenance Panel
– CAAS
– DCU1
– IFF Transponder

Right:
– DAFCS 2 and 1
– Maintenance Panel
– CAAS
– DCU2
– ICMD (Improved Countermeasures Dispenser System)

Question 35

What CAUTION is associated with the Landing Gear Proximity (WOW) switches?

Answer 35

Should either or both of L. or R. Ground Contact (GND CONT) indicating lights on the Maintenance Panel remain illuminated after T/O to a hover, the indicated systems DASH will not function properly in FWD flight and the LCT actuators may remain in the GND position.

Question 36

How will the landing gear proximity switches be affected during a water landing (relate this to an up-slope landing when the aft gear is not in contact with the ground)?

Answer 36

Aft landing gear proximity switches are not activated in a water landing. As a result, DASH actuator will respond to longitudinal stick motion, producing an apparent increase in control sensitivity.

Question 37

While operating under ground regime conditions, with either the L or R GND CONT light active, and the ALT-INIRT or ALT-RAD modes armed, is the UP/DN switch active?

Answer 37

– Yes
– Note that, while the ALT-INIRT or ALT-RAD mode is armed on the ground, the TCL may be beeped up or down to aid in T/O and landing.

Question 38

At what speeds is the low speed regime active?

Answer 38

– The low-speed regime is active when weight is off wheels and the aircraft has not accelerated past 45 knots airspeed.
– The low-speed regime will become active again after the aircraft has decelerated below 35 knots airspeed.

Question 39

List the functions provided by DAFCS in the Low-Speed regime.

Answer 39

– Pitch Attitude Stability below 40 knots
– Heading Hold
– Roll axis Attitude Command / Attitude Hold (ACAH)
– Low Speed Turn Coordination
– Linear Acceleration Command / VEL hold
– Deceleration / PSN hold

Question 40

When is the Forward Flight regime active?

Answer 40

The forward flight regime is active when neither low speed nor ground regimes are active.

Question 41

DECEL/PSN can be armed at any speed, but will only activate below what forward groundspeed?

Answer 41

Will activate only below 65 knots forward groundspeed. It will remain active at up to 70 knots forward groundspeed.

Question 42

Explain the use of the DAFCS trim switch.

Answer 42

The AFCS TRIM switch performs different functions depending on which DAFCS modes are active:
– No selectable mode - commands airspeed and bank angle.
– VEL - commands changes in groundspeed.
– DECEL - it temporarily adjusts the deceleration rate.
– PSN - adjust position or, if held, commands a fixed ground speed.
– LEVEL - lateral switch commands a standard rate turn.

Question 43

What are the two groundspeed based “velocity stabilized” modes and how are they selected (include NOTE)?

Answer 43

–Velocity Hold (VEL) and Deceleration/Position Hold (DECEL/PSN) mode.
– The longitudinal stick may move slightly when DECEL/PSN or VEL is active. This is normal operation of the velocity stabilized modes.

Question 44

Define and discuss Linear Acceleration Command/Velocity Hold (VEL).

Answer 44

– Will activate below 35 FWD KGS and will remain active up to 45 KGS.
– 1 knot/sec in the direction of switch actuation. Below 3 knots total GS, the aircraft will automatically be slowed to a zero-velocity hover.

Question 45

Define and discuss Deceleration/Position Hold (DECEL/PSN).

Answer 45

– Will activate below 65 FWD KGS and will remain active up to 70 KGS.
– When total GS is > 1 knot, DECEL will activate and decelerate the aircraft to a zero-velocity hover at 2 knot/sec. When total GS is < 1 knot, PSN will replace DECEL, and the aircraft will hold position.

Question 46

What is disabled while pressing the centering device release (CD REL) switch?

Answer 46

– Disengages DACFS bank angle hold and heading hold and synchronizes both to the current states.
– It suspends VEL, DECEL, PSN, and LEVEL, and momentarily disables the FD lateral and longitudinal axis coupling.
– When released, all DAFCS functions will resume, and the FD will return to the last selected heading or course.

Question 47

What are the design features of the aircraft that enhance DAFCS off flight?

Answer 47

In general, DAFCS off flight characteristics are enhanced by:
– spoilers on the FWD pylon,
– strakes on the fuel pods and ramp,
– and a blunted AFT pylon.

Question 48

Outline the techniques that should be used during DAFCS off flight.

Answer 48

– Maintain airspeed below established limits.
– Enter all maneuvers smoothly, keep control movements coordinated and avoid overcontrol.
–Constantly scan the inclinometer to maintain trimmed flight.
– React positively but smoothly to divergent movements.

Question 49

What are the airspeed limitations while on a single DAFCS, and with DAFCS off?

Answer 49

– Single DAFCS - 100 KCAS or Vne, whichever is slower.
–DAFCS off - 160 KCAS or Vne, whichever is slower (provided both DAFCS are disabled below 100 KCAS).

Question 50

Define Drag.

Answer 50

– Drag is the net aerodynamic force parallel to the relative wind, usually the sum of 2 components: induced drag and parasite drag.
–Drag is the force opposing the motion of an airfoil through the air.

Question 51

Identify and discuss the different types of drag.

Answer 51

–Parasite Drag - incurred from non-lifting portions of the aircraft. Increases with airspeed and is the dominant type @ high airspeeds.

–Profile Drag - incurred from frictional resistance of the blades passing through the air. At high airspeeds, increases rapidly with onset of blade stall or compressibility.

– Induced Drag - incurred as a result of production of lift. In a RW aircraft, induced drag decreases with increased aircraft airspeed.

Question 52

Explain the Emergency Response Method.

Answer 52

– Using the mnemonic FADEC-F, increases crew situational awareness and enhances crew coordination during an emergency.
– The emergency procedures and flight reference cards were formatted/designed in this way to further assist the crew during an emergency by streamlining and simplifying their required actions.

Question 53

What is the most important single consideration during an emergency?

Answer 53

– Aircraft control is the most important consideration during any emergency.

Question 54

Define Retreating Blade Stall and its effect on tandem rotor helicopters.

Answer 54

– In FWD flight, decreasing velocity of airflow on the retreating blade demands a higher AOA to generate the same lift as the advancing blade. A no-lift area is produced on the retreating blade and, when FWD A/S increases, the no-lift area grows larger, placing a greater demand for the production of lift on a progressively smaller section of the retreating blade. This small pard demands a higher AOA until the tip of the blade stalls.

– In tandem, separate rotors counteract themselves, but probably occurs on AFT first as it operated in turbulent wake of FWD system. Most likely effect is increased vibration.

Question 55

What conditions lead to Retreating Blade Stall?

Answer 55

In operations at high FWD A/S:
– High blade loading (high GWT)
– Low rotor RPM
– High DA
– High G maneuvers
– Turbulent air
– Recovering from blade stall

Question 56

How do you recover from Retreating Blade Stall?

Answer 56

– Reduce collective (thrust)
– Reduce airspeed
– Descend to a lower altitude (if possible)
– Increase rotor RPM to normal limits
– Reduce the severity of the maneuver.

Question 57

What are the indications of an engine failure?

Answer 57

– ENG 1/2 FAIL + audible “WARNING” (x3)
– Continued decrease in NG speed
– Decrease in TQ on the failed engine
– Increase in TQ on the engaged engine
– Possible droop in NR

Question 58

When does the ENG1 or ENG2 FAIL warning activate (include NOTE)?

Answer 58

Activated whenever the engine failure logic within the ECU recognizes any of the following:
– Power turbine shaft failure (NP is > NR by more than 3%)
– Engine flameout
– NG under speed (NG speed < 48%)
– Over temp. start abort (primary mode only)
– FADEC Primary and Reversionary failure

NOTE - When operating for extended periods with only one engine operating, the second engine must be motored or 10 seconds every 30 minutes.

Question 59

Discuss considerations for thrust inputs after a single engine failure at a hover.

Answer 59

– The TCL must not be lowered when an engine or engines fail at a Hover IGE.
– TCL adjustments will depend on altitude at the time of engine failure.

– At a hover below 20’ - maintain TCL position
– At a hover above 20’ - thrust should be lowered slightly to maintain at least 96% NR.

Question 60

Discuss considerations for cyclic inputs for a single engine failure at a low hover.

Answer 60

Following an engine failure, cyclic control is adjusted as necessary to remain in hover over the desired point or to control airspeed and flight path in forward flight.

Question 61

What airspeed should be maintained after a single engine failure in flight?

Answer 61

Airspeed should be maintained at the optimum for existing conditions for continued flight.

Question 62

The generator control unit (GCU) protects the electrical system from what conditions and faults?

Answer 62

– Overvoltage
– Undervoltage
– Under frequency
– Feeder fault, overload, and short circuits.

Question 63

What are the primary active indications of a “No Bus Tie” with a generator failure?

Answer 63

– #1 and #2 RECT FAIL
– ENG1 and ENG2 FUEL PRESS LO
– AFCS1 and AFCS 2 FAIL

Question 64

If both generators fail in flight, what is the only source of electrical power available?

Answer 64

– Should both gens. fail, both transformer rectifiers will also be disabled.
– Consequently, the only electrical power available will be the 24 Vdc from the battery.

Question 65

Where is the No.2 DC Cross-Tie circuit breaker located?

Answer 65

No.2 PDP

Question 66

When do the HYD FLT CONTR pressure cautions become active and inactive?

Answer 66

– Whenever hyd. pressure drops below 1800 psi in one of the flight control systems or utility system.
– The caution deactivates as increasing pressure approaches 2300 psi.
– Caution activation is independent of hyd. pressure indicator operation on the Maintenance panel.

Question 67

What is the emergency procedure for #1 HYD FLT CONTR or #2 HYD FLT CONTR caution?

Answer 67

1. PWR XFER switch (affected system) - ON
   “F” 2. Maintenance Panel - Monitor

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

Question 68

How would a HYD PUMP FAULT be indicated to the pilot? What actions should be taken in the event of a HYD PUMP FAULT indication?

Answer 68

– Illumination of No.1, No.2, UTIL, or APU hydraulic pump fail indicator lamps on the Maintenance Panel.

“F” 1. Maintenance Panel - Monitor

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE - If temperatures or pressure are abnormal, or an abnormal vibration occurs.
LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE - If no abnormal temperatures, pressure or vibration occurs.

Question 69

What is the emergency procedure for the UTIL HYD PRESS LO caution?

Answer 69

Fluid loss is evident:
1. Isolation switch (affected subsystem) - OFF
“F” 2. Maintenance Panel - Monitor
3. Refer to Urgency to land

Fluid loss is not evident:
4. APU - Start
“F” 5. Maintenance Panel - Monitor
6. Refer to Urgency to Land.

LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE - if fluid loss is evident or abnormal temperatures, pressures, or vibration occurs.
LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE - if fluid loss is not evident.

Question 70

What items may be affected depending on the nature of a UTIL HYD system failure (include NOTE)?

Answer 70

– APU, engine starters, ramp and cargo door, wheel brakes, swivel locks, power steering, cargo hooks, PTUs and winch/hoist

NOTE - A thermal switch turns the heater blower on if temperature rises above 29* C and may cause hyd. mist to enter cockpit through the ventilation system.
– To turn the blower off, place the heater switch to HTR ON.

Question 71

What is the purpose of the LCTs and what CAUTION is associated with LCT actuator failure?

Answer 71

– LCT control is part of the DAFCS. The LCT reduces fuselage nose down attitude as FWD A/S is increased, thus reducing fuselage drag. The system also reduces rotor blade flapping which results in lower stresses on the rotor shafts.

CAUTION - If the LCT actuators fail at the full retract position, or are manually selected to the full retract position, do not exceed the airspeed limitations shown in Chapter 5.

Question 72

Discuss the associated NOTEs and procedures for an LCT failure during cruise flight or with one or both failed in the fully retracted position.

Answer 72

NOTE - Prior to responding to any LCT failure EP, cycle the cyclic trim AUTO/MANUAL switch to ensure the LCT failure still exists.

NOTE - Should both ADCs fail, the CHECK LCTs advisory will be inoperative. Therefore, the POWER TRAIN page should be accessed and the LCTs indications monitored.

– Should one or both actuators fail in fully retracted position, airspeed must be limited according to Vne for retracted LCT.
– If failure occurs extended, maintain A/S at or above 60 KCAS or until approach to landing.

Question 73

What type of approach should you make if both LCTs failed in the extended position (unable to retract)?

Answer 73

– The pitch attitude of the helicopter will be higher than normal during the approach and will be dependent upon the amount of actuator extension at the time of failure.
– Set the brakes and execute a shallow approach to a hover or to the ground with a normal touchdown, avoiding large cyclic changes.

Question 74

Should a thrust CCDA fail while VMC, what should you do with the AFCS switch?

Answer 74

AFCS SEL switch - OFF then BOTH

Question 75

When an MFD1 FAIL advisory activates, what should be done with the selector knob on the MFD (include associated CAUTION)?

Answer 75

– Turn MFD to OFF for 15 seconds then back to NORM.

CAUTION - under certain CAAS emergencies/failures, the pilot will uncouple the FD if coupled and deactivate any DAFCS velocity stabilization modes before trying to identify or analyze the condition prior to shutting off and MFD or CDU or pulling a CB.
– Unknown/Unforeseen inputs may be introduced into the system.

Question 76

What airspeed should you adjust to if one EGI fails?

Answer 76

A/S - Below 100 KCAS or Vne, whichever is slower.

Question 77

If both EGIs fail, what is the primary instrument for attitude and heading reference in flight?

Answer 77

SFDs

Question 78

Explain the CAUTION and NOTE associated with emergency descents.

Answer 78

– CAUTION: In executing any emergency descent, regardless of engine power available, it is imperative that the helicopter be maneuvered into a position from which a survivable landing can be accomplished.

– NOTE: Allowing the NR to increase during deceleration will reduce the floating effect which will occur when the deceleration is initiated.

Question 79

Explain the High-speed straight-ahead descent.

Answer 79

1. TCL - Lower (adjust NR to maintain approx. 104%)
2. A/S - Adjust to maintain 130 to 150 KCAS.
3. Recovery - Initiate at or above 600’ AGL (decel. to 75 to 85 KCAS.)

Question 80

Explain the Out-of-Trim descent.

Answer 80

1. TCL - Lower (adjust NR to maintain approx. 104%)
2. A/S - Adjust to maintain approx. 100 KCAS
3. Retrim - Adjust cyclic and pedals to obtain a min. of 1 ball width out of trim to the right (left pedal forward) equivalent to a bank angle of approx. 8* to 10* right and a zero turn rate.
4. Recovery - Initiate at or above 600’ AGL, retrim the ball to center, and adjust to approx. 75 KCAS.

Question 81

Explain the Low speed maneuvering descent.

Answer 81

1. TCL - Lower (adjust NR to maintain approx. 102%)
2. A/S - Adjust to maintain 70 to 90 KCAS
3. Bank Angle - Adjust as required. Bank angles of up to 60* will result in the desired rates of descent.
4. Recovery - Initiate at or above 600’ AGL (helicopter should be returned to wings level).

Question 82

Define Settling with Power.

Answer 82

A condition of powered flight in which the helicopter settles in its own downwash. This condition may also be referred to as the Vortex Ring State.

Question 83

What conditions have to be present for Settling with Power to exist?

Answer 83

Three conditions must simultaneously exist in order for Settling with Power to occur.
– Vertical or near vertical descent of at least 300 FPM. Actual critical rate depends on GWT, rotor RPM, DA, and other pertinent factors.
– Slow forward airspeed (less than ETL)
– Rotor system must be using 20 to 100% of available engine power with insufficient power remaining to arrest the descent. Low rotor RPM could aggravate this.

Question 84

In a CH-47F, what are the corrective actions if experiencing Settling with Power?

Answer 84

Lowering thrust (altitude permitting) and applying lateral cyclic input or pedal input to arrest the upward induced flow of air.

Question 85

Will a shallow approach increase the chances of vortex ring state or help prevent it from occurring?

Answer 85

The vortex ring state can be completely avoided by descending on flight paths shallower than about 30 degrees (at any speed).