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Chegg Decks > CH47_Test_3_deck > Flashcards

CH47_Test_3_deck Flashcards

1
Q

LG:Which gear is steerable?

A

AFT right

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2
Q

LG:What does WOW stand for and what is it also referred to as?

A

Weight-ON-Wheelsreferred to as the Proximity Switches

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3
Q

LG:Which WOW switch prevents cancellation of the mode 4 transponder codes?

A

Left WOW switch

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4
Q

LG:The pressure reducer reduces normal system pressure from 3000 psi to ___ psi for brake operation.

A

1390 psi

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5
Q

LG:What maintains wheel brake system pressure and has enough reserve to allow several power assisted stops if utility system pressure is cut off?

A

Brake accumulator

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6
Q

LG:How much pressure should be in the brake accumulator on preflight?

A

600 to 1400 psi

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7
Q

LG:What is the purpose of the marks on the steering control box?

A

For reference only

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8
Q

LG:With the swivel switch in the steer position, what automatic DAFCS function is disabled?

A

DAFCS heading hold

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9
Q

LG:The turning limits for the CH-47F are ___ and ___.

A

58 degrees Left82 degrees Right.

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10
Q

LG:What is the purpose of the aft wheel swivel locks?

A

To lock the aft gear in the trail position.

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11
Q

LG:What are the three positions of the swivel switch?

A

Lock, unlock, and steer

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12
Q

LG:How much pressure should be in the swivel Lock module accumulator on preflight?

A

2500 to 3500 psi (system pressure)

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13
Q

LG:When should the PWR STEER switch be placed to OFF?

A

When you are isolating the system in emergencies (Brake, Power Steer, Swivel lock)

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14
Q

LG:What provides a source of pressure for brake operation when the PWR STEER switch is OFF?

A

Brake Accumulator

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15
Q

LG:What procedure should you use to restore power steering control if the PWR STEER caution light comes on while taxiing?

A

Lift the aircraft to a hover.Place the SWIVEL switch to LOCKLand and place the SWIVEL switch to STEER.

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16
Q

LG:What provides a source of pressure for swivel lock operation when the PWR STEER switch is off?

A

The Accumulator on the Power Steering/Swivel Lock Module.

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17
Q

LG:What should be the position of the SWIVEL switch for all takeoffs and landings?

A

LOCK

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18
Q

LG:Which three subsystems are affected by the PWR STEER switch?

A

Power steeringSwivelBrakes

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19
Q

LG:With the swivel switch in the steer position, what automatic AFCS function is diabled?

A

DAFCS heading hold

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20
Q

LG:If the Power Steer Switch is placed in the off position, will the aircraft brakes still operate?

A

Yes, if there is pressure in the Brake Accumulator

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21
Q

FC:How will the rotor discs react to a right pedal input?

A

Right pedal input tilts the forward swashplate to the right and the aft swashplate to the left.

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22
Q

FC:How will the rotor discs react to a right cyclic input?

A

Right cyclic input tilts both the forward and aft swashplates to the right.

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23
Q

FC:How is the collective pitch in the forward and aft rotors affected when the cyclic is moved forward?

A

Forward cyclic input decreases thrust (collective pitch) in the forward rotor system and increases thrust in the aft rotor system an equal amount, causing the aircraft to pitch nose down and increase airspeed.

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24
Q

FC:What control movements must be made for a hovering turn about:Center hook - ___Forward Rotor - ___Aft Rotor - ___

A

Apply pedal input onlyCoordinate pedal and cyclic movements in opposite directionsCoordinate pedal and cyclic movements in the same direction.

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25
Q

FC:Give names for the following abbreviations for flight control components:DAFCS - ___DASH - ___ILCA - ___CCDA - ___LVDT - ___CPT - ___

A

Digital Advanced Flight Control SystemDifferential Airspeed Hold ActuatorIntegrated Lower Control ActuatorsCockpit Controlled Driver ActuatorLinear Variable Differential TransducerControl Position Transducer

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26
Q

FC:Which aircraft system causes the extensible link portion of the ILCA’s to make control inputs?

A

DAFCS

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27
Q

FC:What is the minimum allowable forward and aft cyclic stick travel during the control checks?

A

Minimum 7 in. forwardMinimum 4 in. aft

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28
Q

FC:What are the control limitations for ground operations?

A

Thrust - No lower than ground detent.Lateral cyclic - 1.00 in.Aft cyclic - 2.00 in.Pedals - 0.75 in.

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29
Q

FC:Should you enter forecast moderate or stronger turbulence with an inoperative thrust brake?What environmental flight condition shall be avoided when the thrust brake is inoperative?

A

Do not enter forecast turbulence with an inoperative thrust brake (one that will not hold the thrust in position)Turbulence

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30
Q

FC:Which control axes have magnetic brakes that are released when the centering device release (CDR) switch is pressed?

A

Pitch, Roll, and Yaw

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31
Q

FC:Why is it important to have the left and right pedals adjusted to the same holes prior to engine start?

A

To prevent droop stop pounding.To make appropriate control inputs.

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32
Q

FC:What are the functions of the boost portion of the ILCA?

A

Each ILCA assembly has two independent boost actuator systems which provide:Hydraulic assist (1500psi) for cockpit control inputs.Prevents control feedback.

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33
Q

FC:What is the function of the DAFCS extensible link portion of the ILCA?

A

Electronic signals to mechanical inputs in the upper portion of the flight controls

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34
Q

FC:How will the forward and aft rotor discs react when the cyclic is moved left?

A

Moving the cyclic left tilts both the forward and aft swashplates to the left.

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35
Q

FC:What are the two parts of the No.1 Pitch ILCA?

A

Boost and Extensible link

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36
Q

FC:Should you slip the thrust brake during your controls check?

A

No, use the thrust control brake trigger.

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37
Q

FC:Pulling the cyclic aft increases pitch in the forward blades and decreases pitch in the aft blades, this is an example of what?

A

Differential Collective Pitch

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38
Q

FC:What component improves control feel by reducing control sensitivity when the magnetic brake is released?

A

Viscous Damper

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39
Q

FC:What is the purpose of balance springs on all axes?

A

To counteract the downward imbalance imposed by the controls when the magnetic brake is released, therefore balancing the controls around an neutral position.

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40
Q

FC:What is the preset tilt of the forward and aft transmission?

A

Forward - 9 degreesAft - 4 degrees

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41
Q

DAFCS:The DAFCS stabilizes the helicopter about all axes and enhances control response; name four features provided by the DAFCS.

A

Pitch attitude stabilizationBank angle and heading holdDamping of angular rates of motion in the pitch, roll, and yaw axesLongitudinal static stability and airspeed stability above 40 KCAS

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42
Q

DAFCS:When accelerating from a hover, what is the max airspeed which can be flown to remain within the Low Speed Regime?

A

45 KGSThe low speed regime is active when weight is oof wheels and the aircraft has not accelerated past 45 KGS. The low speed regime will become active again after the aircraft has decelerated below 35 KGS.

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43
Q

DAFCS:Does the cyclic have to be centered for the cyclic to be in detent?

A

Not necessarilyCyclic Detent means the cyclic is not in motion, with no pressure applied to control centering springs, and the centering device release switch is not being depressed.DAFCS establishes an electronically/pseudo centered position (cyclic detent)

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44
Q

DAFCS:At what groundspeed does the Position Hold feature become captured?

A

The PSN hold feature becomes captured at < 1 KGS.

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45
Q

DAFCS:At what ground speed decelerating does the VEL feature become active or captured?

A

< 35 KGS.

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46
Q

DAFCS:What is the maximum allowable airspeed when operating with:both DAFCS OFF - ___a single DAFCS ON - ___

A

160 KCAS or Vne, whichever is slower100 KCAS or Vne, whichever is slower

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47
Q

DAFCS:At what groundspeed will the Low Speed Regine become active when decelerating?

A

After the aircraft has decelerated below 35 KGS.

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48
Q

DAFCS:How accurate is the DAFCS heading hold feature?

A

+/- 3 degrees

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49
Q

DAFCS:What are the two groundspeed-based “velocity stabilized” pilot-selectable modes?

A

VEL (Velocity) holdPSN (Position) Hold

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50
Q

DAFCS:When does the Position (PSN) hold become active?

A

PSN mode can be armed at any speed, but will not activate if forward GS is above 70 knots, if ground contact is detected, or if the CD REL button is pressed.

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51
Q

DAFCS:Define CPT and LVDT.

A

Control Position TransducerLinear Variable Differential Transducer.

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52
Q

PPC:Who is responsible for ensuring the aircraft limitations and capabilities are not exceeded?

A

The pilot in command (PC)

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53
Q

PPC:The same PPC data will not suffice for consecutive takeoffs and landings, when?

A

If the data has not significantly changed (increase of 1000 lbs., +/- 10* C, +/- 1000 ft. PA).

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54
Q

PPC:What is a validation factor?

A

A TQ value that will correspond to the maximum allowable gross weight for the mission profile.

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55
Q

PPC:What is the maximum power authorized for permission planning at departure/arrivals below 40 KCAS?

A

MAX TQ AVAIL 10 MIN

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56
Q

PPC:What is the purpose of performance planning?

A

To provide the best available performance data for the CH-47 helicopter.

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57
Q

PPC:Where are the conditions for the data listed?

A

Under the title of each chart.

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58
Q

PPC:On the torque available chart, the point where the line bends to the left represents what?

A

The change from being PTIT limited to being NG limited.

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59
Q

PPC:What do the torque available charts provide?

A

The primary use is to determine available engine torque for various combinations of PA and Temp.

60
Q

PPC:Maximum gross weight to hover chart is used to provide what?

A

The upper chart provides Max Structural limit, lower chart provides MAX GW IGE/OGE based on engine.

61
Q

PPC:What does a GO/NO GO provide?

A

If there is sufficient power to attempt OGE maneuvers.

62
Q

PPC:The Airspeed operating limits chart is used to determine an airspeed limit based on what?

A

To determine the max operating airspeed; based on structural or blade compressibility, use whichever is slower.

63
Q

PPC:What does the Max R/C and END airspeed provide?

A

Max R/C and Endurance will tell you at what airspeed you can get the highest rate of climb or the most time out of your fuel load. This airspeed also represents the best single engine airspeed in a single engine configuration.

64
Q

PPC:What does the MAX range airspeed provide?

A

The maximum range computes at what airspeed the aircraft can get the most distance out of the fuel load. This is a dual engine value only.

65
Q

PPC:What does MIN and MAX single engine airspeed provide?

A

Min. and Max. single engine CAS is used to determine the min. airspeed that will allow continued single engine operations, and the max. airspeed that can be maintained while operating single engine.

66
Q

PPC:What should be considered when selecting cruise airspeed?

A

Airspeed selected is not in excess of item 44/45, or the Vcgi line indicated on the cruise charts.

67
Q

PPC:What is drag factor value used for?

A

The amount of additional TQ required to carry an external load.

68
Q

PPC:Max gross weight continuous power is based on what?

A

Airspeed, PA, and temperature.

69
Q

PPC:What can you adjust on the cruise chart to meet the mission requirements?

A

The airspeed and/or gross weight

70
Q

PPC:What does the MAX gross weight SE from the SESC chart tell you?

A

The MAX weight that SE flight can be maintained based on MAX R/C and Endurance KCAS and 100 fpm climb.

71
Q

PPC:The maximum allowable GWT for the mission profile is based on?

A

Either structural limit or power limit for the entire mission.

72
Q

PPC:What can be added back into the MAX MSN profile GWT?

A

The expendables that will be used prior to reaching the highest altitude/temperature if applicable.

73
Q

PPC:What chart and condition is used to calculate the MAX gross weight for MSN profile TQ?

A

The hover chart and forecast conditions at time of departure.

74
Q

DAFCS:Which actuator makes the control input for longitudinal static stability, pitch attitude hold, and airspeed hold purposes?

A

DASH (Differential Airspeed Hold) Actuator

75
Q

DAFCS:What is the name of the DAFCS component which the No.1 Flight Control Computer (FCC) controls to provide the Altitude Hold feature?

A

Thrust CCDA (Cockpit Controlled Driver Actuator)

76
Q

DAFCS:What is the status of the Heading Hold feature when the Swivel Lock Switch is not in the Locked position?

A

The Heading Hold feature is desengaged

77
Q

DAFCS:How do the flight control computers know to place the LCT actuators to the GRD position when in AUTO?

A

The FCC’s position the actuators based on airspeed, pressure altitude, and the position of the WOW switches.

78
Q

DAFCS:What are the three control laws (regimes) for the DAFCS?

A

Ground RegimeLow Speed RegimeFlight Regime

79
Q

DAFCS:Which FCC controls the pitch CCDA?

A

FCC2

80
Q

DAFCS:Which FFF controls the thrust CCDA?

A

FCC1

81
Q

DAFCS:How will the aircraft react if DAFCS is turned off at one airspeed and back on at a different airspeed?

A

Pitch transients to the aircraft attitude will occur.

82
Q

DAFCS:What 3 DAFCS features are provided by the DASH actuator?

A

Longitudinal static stabilityPitch Attitude holdAirspeed hold

83
Q

DAFCS:What visual indication will you see when the DASH actuators are re-centering when DAFCS is first turned on?

A

DASH 1 FAIL and DASH 2 FAIL cautions

84
Q

DAFCS:What is the name of the portion of the ILCA that is controlled by the DAFCS FCCs?

A

Extensible Link Actuators (ELA)

85
Q

DAFCS:When the landing gear proximity switches/WOW switches are activated, the DAFCS input into the pitch ILCA is reduced by what percent?How does this reduction help the pilot control the aircraft?

A

50%This reduction helps prevent Porpoising of the aircraft during two-wheel taxi.

86
Q

DAFCS:Which DAFCS Computer controls the radar and inertial altitude hold feature?

A

FCC1

87
Q

DAFCS:What should you do if the LCT actuators fail to position to GND during taxi, water, or slope operations?

A

Select MAN on the LCT panel and adjust them manually.

88
Q

DAFCS:Do not manually extend the LCT actuators beyond the GND position on the cyclic trim indicators at airspeeds below ___.

A

60 KCAS

89
Q

DAFCS:What must be monitored to prevent transmission damage when changing airspeed or heading with altitude hold engaged?

A

Monitor TCL movement Torque meter during airspeed changes.

90
Q

DAFCS:With the aircraft at a hover and VEL captured, what will occur if the DAFCS Trim Switch is beeped forward 3 times?

A

Move forward at 3 KGS

91
Q

DAFCS:How do you momentarily disengage altitude hold when changing altitude?

A

By depressing and holding the Thrust Brake Switch until the desired altitude is achieved.

92
Q

DAFCS:Will the LCTs function with the DAFCS switch in the off position?

A

Yes

93
Q

DAFCS:Name the two features of DAFCS that disengage when the centering device release switch is depressed?

A

Heading HoldFD coupling while depressed

94
Q

DAFCS:What is the maximum aircraft bank angle with altitude hold engaged?

A

30 degrees pitch45 degrees roll

95
Q

DAFCS:If you have a hard-over with both DAFCS on, how will you know when you have the operational system selected on and the malfunctioning system off?

A

Selecting the operation system may create a reverse hard-over.

96
Q

DAFCS:Is “Go Around” a DAFCS feature or feature of the FD?

A

Flight Director

97
Q

DAFCS:When can radar altitude hold be used in forward flight?

A

Radar Altitude Hold (ALT-RAD) is restricted from use in forward flight except over water and known flat terrain.

98
Q

DAFCS:Should you allow the cyclic to move when the DAFCS trim switch is moved forward or aft?

A

YesThe cyclic will move in the direction of AFCS Trim switch movement and should be allowed to move.

99
Q

DAFCS:What action should the pilot take to select Radar Altitude Hold?

A

Select ALT on the TCL twice.

100
Q

DAFCS:Holding the AFCS Trim Switch produces a fixed translational rate of ___ (3 knots) in the direction of actuation. Bank angle hold will not reengage until the roll rate is less than ___.

A

5 feet per second1.5 degrees per second

101
Q

DAFCS:The VEL feature can be selected at any speed, but will not activate until below ___ forward groundspeed and remains active up to ___ forward groundspeed.

A

35 KGS45 KGS

102
Q

DAFCS:Deceleration/Position Hold (DECEL/PSN) can be armed at any speed, but will activate only below ___ forward GS. It will remain active at up to ___.

A

65 KGS70 KGS

103
Q

DAFCS:Roll Wings Level Mode (LEVEL) can be selected when the aircraft is traveling at greater than ___ forward GS.

A

45 KGS

104
Q

DAFCS:Altitude hold will level-off and capture a new reference when the vertical velocity is less than ___.

A

25 ft/min

105
Q

DAFCS:Will the cyclic move when the DAFCS trim switch is moved laterally?

A

NOMoving the switch left or right tells the FCCs to command the roll extensible links to bank the aircraft in the direction of the AFCS Trim switch movement. The cyclic will not move.

106
Q

DAFCS:Describe one way you can change the aircraft bank angle without moving the cyclic?

A

Moving the AFCS Trim Switch left or rightFD

107
Q

DAFCS:With VEL captured (aircraft hovering), what happens to the status of VEL when either WOW switch engages?

A

VEL will be disabled.

108
Q

DAFCS:Which mode of LCT operation should you select during flight in moderate or above turbulence?

A

Manual

109
Q

DAFCS:When flying in known or forecast moderate or above turbulence, what are the three concerns/restrictions the pilots should be aware of?

A

Altitude Modes - deselectedDo not enter forecast moderate or stronger turbulence with an inoperative Thrust CCDAManual modes on LCTs

110
Q

DAFCS:When flying in moderate turbulence or above, should BARO ALT be engaged?

A

No, de-select FLT DIR Altitude modes

111
Q

DAFCS:The RETRIM REQUEST Advisory is active when either the roll or yaw ILCA is using more than 40% or 50% of its available authority for trim. The pilot should re-trim the controls with the ___ to allow the actuators to re-center.

A

CD REL Switch

112
Q

Rotor:Describe the purpose of the Fixed Droop Stops.

A

fixed droop stops on the rotor heads limit the amount of flapping the pitch shafts and rotor blades can flap up or down.

113
Q

Rotor:Which component in the rotor system uses commands from the FCCs of the DAFCS to provide inputs to the rotor system?

A

LCT actuators

114
Q

Rotor:Name the three actuators that are connected to the stationary ring of the swashplate.

A

Swiveling actuatorPivoting actuatorLCT actuator

115
Q

Rotor:What is the purpose of the Centrifugal Droop Stop Assembly?

A

It provides an additional limit to the drooping of the aft rotor blades during low rotor RPMs (NR) and shutdown.

116
Q

Rotor:What is the purpose of the following components?Limiters - ___Springs - ___Weight - ___

A

They are two interconnected steel loops that restrict the distance the weight and arm assembly can extend outwardUsed to pull the weight and army assembly back into place as the rotor RPM decreases from FLIGHT to GROUNDUsed to pull the arm outward as the rotor RPM increases from GROUND to FLIGHT

117
Q

Rotor:What component of the Centrifugal Droop Assembly limits how far the balancing arm on the Centrifugal Droop Assembly moves outward as the NR increases from GROUND to FLIGHT?

A

The Limiters (two interconnected steel loops)

118
Q

Rotor:What component on the Centrifugal Droop Assembly is used to pull the balancing arm and interposer block back into place as the NR decreases from FLIGHT to GROUND?

A

The Springs

119
Q

Rotor:What does a rotor blade drooping significantly lower than the other blades possibly indicate?

A

A missing droop stop.

120
Q

Rotor:Which component controls the rate and limits the amount of lead and lag for the rotor blade assemblies?

A

The blade shock absorbers.

121
Q

Rotor:Name the four major components that make up the swashplate assembly.

A

Rotating RingSpherical Ball (uni-ball)BearingStationary Ring

122
Q

Rotor:What drives the rotating ring of the swashplate?

A

Drive arm assembly

123
Q

Rotor:When inspecting the rotor head, the sight glasses show oil levels within the oil tanks. At what level does the oil have to be at to depict that the oil tank is full?

A

Halfway full in the gauge.

124
Q

Rotor:Name the six major components of the rotor head.

A

Rotor hubHorizontal Hinge Pin (3)Tie bar (3)Pitch Varying Shaft (3)Pitch Varying Housing (3)Vertical Hinge Pin (3)

125
Q

Rotor:What is the purpose of the following components of the rotor head?Rotor Hub - ___Horizontal Hinge Pin - ___Tie Bar - ___

A

Provides the mounting base for the components of the rotor head.Attaches the pitch varying shaft to the rotor hub and allows for flapping.Connects the pitch varying housing to the pitch varying shaft AND allows the pitch varying housing to rotate around the pitch varying shaft, changing the pitch in the rotor blades (feathering).

126
Q

Rotor:What is the purpose of the following components of the rotor head?Pitch varying shaft - ___Pitch varying housing - ___Vertical hinge pin - ___

A

Provides the mount for the pitch varying housing.The final point of flight control input allowing pitch inputs AND provides the mounting points for the pitch change links, damper, rotor blade, and lighting protection cables.Allows the rotor blade to lead and lag.

127
Q

Rotor:Name the three types of oil hubs on the rotor head and describe what they lubricate.

A

Center Oil tank (main hub of oil) - lubricates the six horizontal hinge pin bearings.Three pitch varying housing tanks - lubricates the pitch varying housing bearings on the shaft.Three vertical hinge pin tanks (3 separate systems) - lubricates the vertical hinge pin bearings.

128
Q

Rotor:What component is mounted inside the pitch shaft, passes through the horizontal hinge pin, and connects to the outboard end of the pitch varying housing?

A

Tie bar

129
Q

Rotor:During preflight, you discover that a rotor blade shock absorber appears to be low on hydraulic fluid. Where must the fluid level be at to be an acceptable proper fluid level?

A

Fluid level should be in the middle of the sight glass within the bullseye when the rotor blade is positioned 90* off of the fuselage.

130
Q

Rotor:What condition may occur if ground control limitations are exceeded?

A

Droop stop pounding.

131
Q

Rotor:A rotor head that allows the blades to lead, lag, feather, and flap is what type of rotor head?

A

Fully-articulated rotor head.

132
Q

Rotor:What component of the rotor head allows the blades to lead and lag?

A

Vertical hinge pin.

133
Q

Rotor:What components are designed into the rotor blade and provide a ground for the blade to the aircraft? If damaged, what flying restriction applies?

A

Lighting protection cables and straps.Avoid flight in or near thunderstorms, especially in areas of observed or anticipated lightning discharges.

134
Q

Rotor:What flight condition must be avoided if lighting cables and straps are damaged or missing from the rotor blade?

A

Flight near thunderstorms.

135
Q

Rotor:What is the purpose of the Kevlar filament windings on the rotor blade?

A

They secure the shock absorber bracket to the spar.

136
Q

Rotor:A fully articulated head means that each blade can ___.

A

Lead, lag, feather, and flap.

137
Q

Rotor:During preflight, the sight gauges on the rotor head are inspected for proper oil level. What oil level visual indication determines that the oil tank is full?

A

Sight glass half full.

138
Q

Rotor:When conducting a preflight inspection on the Damper Shock Absorber mounts on the rotor blade, ensure that the Kevlar windings do not have minute cracks running ___ to the direction of the windings.

A

Perpendicular

139
Q

Rotor:What components ground the rotor blade to the rotor head (2 types)?

A

Lighting cables and grounding straps.

140
Q

Rotor:What administrative action is required if the rotor system accelerates above 111.5% NR?

A

An entry in the logbook is required.

141
Q

Rotor:What components provides rotor speed indications (NR) to CAAS?

A

Permanent Magnetic Generators

142
Q

Rotor:What is the maximum transient (power on) rotor RPM (NR) with the engines driving the rotors?

A

106%

143
Q

Rotor:An entry in DA Form 2408-13-1 must be made if the rotor system exceeds what percentage?

A

111.50%

144
Q

Rotor:Describe the rotor system limitations from the chart in (NR) IAW TM 1-1520-271-10-2, Chapter 5.

A

91% - Minimum transient power on91 to 96% - lower transient97 to 101% - Normal operation101 to 106% - upper transient106% - Maximum transient power on108% - Maximum during autorotation111% - Maximum transient

145
Q

Rotor:When rotor speed (NR) is displayed on the VSD on the MFD in the normal operating range, what does the display show?

A

BLANK

Chegg Decks (24 decks)

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