Ch. 7 Pharmacological Principles Flashcards

1
Q

pharmacokinetics:

A

what the body does to drugs
-absorption
-distribution
-metabolism
-excretion

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2
Q

pharmacodynamics:

A

what the drug does to the body
-target sites for drug actions include receptors, ion channels, enzymes, and carrier proteins

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3
Q

method and rate at which drugs leave the site of administration:
a. absorption b. distribution c. metabolism d. excretion

A

a. absorption

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4
Q

for oral medications, absorption normally occurs in ________ and then in the _____

A

small intestine and then in the liver

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5
Q

occurs after the drug leaves the systemic circulation and enters the interstitium and cells:
a. absorption b. distribution c. metabolism d. excretion

A

b. distribution

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6
Q

drugs are redistributed in organs according to their ____ and ____ content

A

fat and protein content

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7
Q

True or False: most psychotropic drugs are lipophilic and highly protein bound

A

True

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8
Q

True or False: only the bound portion of the drug is active

A

False, only the unbound (free) portion is active
-those w/ low protein (albumin) levels may experience toxicity

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9
Q

process by which the drug becomes chemically altered in the body:
a. absorption b. distribution c. metabolism d. excretion

A

c. metabolism

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10
Q

First-pass metabolism= process in which drug is metabolized by:
a. blood brain barrier b. cytochrome P450 enzymes c. kidneys d. adrenal glands

A

b. cytochrome P450 enzymes
-in the liver and intestines prior to systemic circulation

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11
Q

process by which the drug is removed from the body:
a. absorption b. distribution c. metabolism d. excretion

A

d. excretion

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12
Q

Half-life (T1/2)= time needed to clear _____% of the drug from the plamsa

A

50%
-determines dosing interval and length of time to reach stead state

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13
Q

steady state: dose at which amount of drug _____ between doses is approximately equal to dose ______

A

-eliminated
-administered

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14
Q

True or False: drugs are usually administered one every half-life to achieve a steady state

A

True

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15
Q

How many half-lives does it take to achieve steady state or to completely eliminate the drug

A

5 half-lives

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16
Q

Enzyme inducers (increase or decrease?) the serum level of other drugs that are substrates of that enzyme- and cause ______ levels

A

-decrease
-cause subtherapeutic levels

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17
Q

Enzyme inhibitors (increase or decrease?) the serum level of other drugs that are substrates of that enzyme- and cause ______ levels

A

-increase
-cause toxic levels

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18
Q

Approx. 10% of Caucasians are poor metabolizers of the P450 ____ enzyme

A

2D6

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19
Q

Approx. 20% of Asians may have reduced activity of the P450 ____ enzyme

A

2C19

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20
Q

Which of these medications is considered an inducer of cytochrome P450?
a. Buproprion b. Clomipramine
c. SSRIs d. Carbamazepine

A

d. Carbamazepine
-the other meds listed are inhibitors
-more inhibitors include: Cimetidine, Clarithromycin, Fluoroquinolones, Grapefruit/ grapefruit juice, Ketoconazole

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21
Q

Which of these medications is an inhibitor of cytochrome P450?
a. Hypericum (St. John’s Wort) b. Phenytoin c. Nefazodone d. Phenobarbital

A

c. Nefazodone
-the other meds are inducers
-tobacco is also an inducer

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22
Q

liver disease may result in (toxic or subtherapeutic?) drug levels

A

toxic

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23
Q

True or False: drugs that reduce renal clearance (NSAIDs) may increase serum concentrations of drugs that are excreted by the kidneys (lithium)

A

True

24
Q

True or False: older adults tend to have less body fat and more protein

A

False, they are more likely to have more body fat and less protein, making them more like to develop toxicity d/t accumulation and erratic blood levels of drug

25
Q

drug binds to receptors and activates a biological response:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. partial agonist d. inverse agonist

A

a. agonist

26
Q

drug causes the opposite effect of agonist; binds to same receptor:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. partial agonist d. inverse agonist

A

d. inverse agonist

27
Q

drug does not fully activate the receptors:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. partial agonist d. inverse agonist

A

c. partial agonist

28
Q

drug binds to the receptor but does not activate a biological response:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. partial agonist d. inverse agonist

A

b. antagonist

29
Q

True or False: NTs or drugs may be excitatory or inhibitory depending on the type of ion channel they gate

A

True

30
Q

Excitatory response (depolarization) involves the opening of ____ and _____ channels, so these ions can go into the cell

A

sodium and calcium

31
Q

Inhibitory response (repolarization) involves the opening of ____ channels so _____ goes into the cell and ____ leaves or both

A

-opening of chloride channels
-chloride goes into cell
-potassium leaves cell

32
Q

reuptake pumps:

A

transport NTs out of synapse and back into the presynaptic neuron to be recycled/reused

33
Q

SSRIs inhibit ____, which increases the synaptic availability of the NT

A

reuptake pumps

34
Q

relative dose required to achieve certain affects is:
a. therapeutic index b. potency c. tolerance d. efficacy

A

b. potency

35
Q

relative measure of the toxicity or safety of a drug; ratio of the median toxic dose to the median effective dose:
a. therapeutic index b. potency c. tolerance d. efficacy

A

a. therapeutic index

36
Q

the process of becoming less responsive to a particular drug over time:
a. therapeutic index b. potency c. tolerance d. efficacy

A

c. tolerance

37
Q

True or False: drugs with a high therapeutic index have a high margin of safety

A

True
-toxic dose and therapeutic dose are far apart
-high margin of safety

38
Q

Divalproex is an example of which: high or low therapeutic index

A

high (50-125mcg/ml)

39
Q

Lithium is an example of which:
high or low therpeutic index

A

low (0.5-1.2 mEQ/L)
pg. 114

40
Q

tachyphylaxis:

A

acute decrease in the therapeutic response

41
Q

Which schedule drugs are used for research purpose only:
a. Schedule I b. Schedule II
c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV

A

a. Schedule I
-not legally available by prescription/high abuse potential
-examples: marijuana (depending on state) and heroin

42
Q

Which schedule drugs are written prescription only, high abuse potential, no refills allowed on prescription, no telephone orders allowed:
a. Schedule I b. Schedule II
c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV

A

b. Schedule II
-examples include: morphine, codeine, fentanyl, methadone, hydromorphone, oxycodone, hydrocodone, amphetamine salts, methylphenidate

43
Q

Which schedule drugs have less abuse potential but still greater abuse potential than other drugs, prescription must be renewed q 6 months and refill limit of 5:
a. Schedule I b. Schedule II
c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV

A

c. Schedule III
-examples: appetite suppressants, butalbital, testosterone, buprenorphine/naloxone

44
Q

Benzodiazepines are an example of which schedule drugs:
a. Schedule I b. Schedule V
c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV

A

d. Schedule IV
-other examples: modafinil, phenobarbital, zolpidem, eszopiclone, temazepam, armodafinil

45
Q

Which schedule drugs have the lowest abuse potential:
a. Schedule I b. Schedule V
c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV

A

b. Schedule V
-examples: buprenorphine, Robitussin w/ codeine, promethazine w/ codeine, Lomotil

46
Q

risks of not taking psychotropics during pregnancy include:
a. recurrence of psych symptoms b. premature labor c. teratogenic effects d. discontinuation symptoms

A

a. recurrence of symptoms
-along w/: poor bonding and maternal self-care
-the others are examples of risks of taking psychotropics during pregnancy, along w/: issues w/ appetite, transient agitation or sedation

47
Q

teratogenic risks associated w/ benzodiazepines (2):

A

floppy baby syndrome, cleft palate

48
Q

teratogenic risk associated w/ carbamazepine:

A

neural tube defects

49
Q

teratogenic risk associated w/ lithium:

A

Epstein anomaly

50
Q

teratogenic risks associated w/ divalproex sodium include (4):

A

-neural tube defects (specifically spina bifida)
-atrial septal defect
-cleft palate
-possible long-term developmental deficits

51
Q

which medication has the potential to induce mania?
a. beta blockers b. disulfiram (Antabuse) c. benzodiazepines d. progesterone e. some retroviral drugs

A

b. disulfiram
-the other medications listed may induce depression, not mania
-other meds that may induce mania include isoniazid (INH), antidepressants in persons w/ bipolar and steroids (also can induce depression)

52
Q

True or False: Isotretinoin (Accutane) may induce depression

A

True

53
Q

True or False: Bupropion (Wellbutrin) may cause a false positive for amphetamines

A

True,
other meds that may also cause false positive for this include:
-stimulants
-Prozac
-Trazodone
-Ranitidine
-Nefazodone
-Nasal decongestants
-Pseudoephedrine

54
Q

Zoloft may cause a false positive for which drugs?:
a. cocaine b. benzodiazepines c. amphetamines d. heroin

A

b. benzodiazepines

55
Q

True or False: Amoxicillin and most antibiotics can cause a false positive for amphetamines

A

False, amoxicillin, most antibiotics and NSAIDs can cause a false positive for cocaine

56
Q

True or False: Valium can cause a false positive for alcohol

A

True