Ch. 6 Advanced Health Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

All of these are primitive reflexes that should be checked in infants except:
a. head lag b. ulnar c. rooting d. grasping e. Moro f. Babinski g. glabellar

A

b. ulnar

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2
Q

In infants, which of these is demonstrated when the head is not righted but lags posteriorly behind the trunk as a result of poor head and neck control:
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

a. head lag

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3
Q

Which of these is a normal reflex for an infant when he or she is startled or feels like they are falling. Arms will fling out sideways with the palms up and the thumbs flexed:
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

b. Moro (startle reflex)

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4
Q

Which of these is positive when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked, dorsiflexion of the great toe and fanning of the other toes occurs (normal up to 2 years of age):
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

c. Babinski sign

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5
Q

Which of these is a reflex that is elicited by repetitive tapping on the forehead. Normal subjects usually blink in response to the first several taps:
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

d. glabellar reflex, if blinking persists, the response is abnormal and considered to be a sign of frontal release

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6
Q

Cranial Nerve I and test

A

Olfactory - Test sense of smell, nasal passages patent, have client close eyes and test each nostril separate

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7
Q

Cranial Nerve II and test

A

Optic - Relay messages from eyes to the brain to create visual images
- Test vision using Snellen chart (or other chart), examen inner aspect of eyes, test peripheral vision w/ confrontation test

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8
Q

Cranial Nerve III and test

A

Oculomotor : Allows movement of the eye muscles, constriction of the pupil, focusing the eyes and the position of the upper eyelid. Works with other cranial nerves to control eye movements.
-Test EOMs, check pupils (PERRLA), corneal reflex
-Test this nerve with IV and VI

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9
Q

Cranial Nerve IV and test

A

Trochlear: Enables movement in the eye’s superior oblique muscle. Makes it possible to look down. Enables you to move your eyes toward your nose or away from it
-Test w/ III and VI

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10
Q

Cranial Nerve V and test

A

Trigeminal: 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve (the ophthalmic, mandibular, and maxillary divisions). The ophthalmic and maxillary nerves are purely sensory. The mandibular nerve has sensory and motor functions
Test: -Motor - palpate masseter muscles while client clenches teeth, look for disparity between the two muscles, tremor of lips, involuntary chewing, masticatory muscle spams
-Sensory-: Test tactile perception of facial skin, corneal reflex, superficial pain, sense of touch in oral mucosa

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11
Q

Cranial Nerve VI and Test

A

Abducens: Innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus muscle and partially innervate the contralateral medial rectus muscle - able to move eye outwards
Test w/ III and IV

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12
Q

Cranial Nerve VII and Test

A

Facial- controls the muscles that help with smile, frown, wrinkle the nose, and raise the eyebrows and forehead
-Inspect face for flaccid paralysis
-Have client elevate eyebrows, wrinkle forehead, close eyes, frown, smile, puff cheeks

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13
Q

Cranial Nerve VIII and Test

A

Acoustic - transfers auditory information from the cochlea (auditory area of the inner ear) to the brain
-enables effective hearing
check hearing w/ audiometer or by whisper test
-check hearing loss using Weber and Rinne tests

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14
Q

Cranial Nerve IX and Test

A

Glossopharyngeal - provides motor, parasympathetic and sensory information to your mouth and throat
-test with cranial nerve X

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15
Q

Cranial Nerve X and Test

A

Vagus- main nerves of the parasympathetic nervous system. This system controls specific body functions such as digestion, heart rate and immune system
-Test for elevation of uvula by having client open their mouth and say “ah”, test gag reflex

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16
Q

Cranial Nerve XI and Test

A

Accessory spinal- essential for neck and shoulder movement, the intrinsic musculature of the larynx, and the sensitive afferences of the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid musculature
-test strength of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles against resistance of your hands

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17
Q

Cranial Nerve XII and Test

A

Hypoglossal -enables tongue movement -controls the hyoglossus, intrinsic, genioglossus and styloglossus muscles. These muscles allow pt to speak, swallow and move substances around in their mouth
-Look for tremors and other involuntary movements when client protrudes their tongue

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18
Q

Test equilibrium of pt

A

Romberg test - have client stand straight w/ feet together, arms by sides, eyes closed. Slight swaying is normal, should be able to sustain pose for approx 5 sec. More than slight swaying suggests cerebellar ataxia or vestibular dysfunction

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19
Q

Which of these is the ability to perform rapid alternating movements (pat knees alternating palm and back of hands, touch thumb to each finger):
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

a. diadochokinesia, Pt should be able to smoothly execute and maintain rhythm.
-Inability to perform rapids alternating movements; result of a lesion to the posterior lobe of the cerebellum

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20
Q

Which of these includes finger-to-nose test and heel-to-knee test?:
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

b. dyssynergia

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21
Q

Which of these test ability for pt to distinguish forms by placing objects in their hand while their eyes are closed:
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

c. stereogenesis

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22
Q

Which of these tests ability to identify figures, letters, words by tracing the figure on the skin of the palm of the hand:
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

d. graphesthesia

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23
Q

Inability to discriminate between objects based on touch alone is called ______; can be the result of a lesion in the ____lobe

A

-astereogenesis
-parietal

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24
Q

Inability to recognize letters/numbers “drawn” on the pts hand w/ a pointed object is called ______

A

-agraphesthesia

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25
Greater than what percentile for BMI places a child at increased risk for being overweight?
>85th percentile
26
Normal, Overweight and Obese BMI range
Normal: 20-25 Overweight: 26-29 Obese: 30-35
27
High BMI = risk factor for all of the following except: a. diabetes b. heart disease c. stroke d. hypotension e. osteoarthritis f. some forms of cancer
d. hypotension, instead is risk factor for hypertension
28
Pt taking carbamazepine or clozapine with an elevated temp... what should you be concerned about?
Agranulocytosis (pg.83)
29
Cancerous mole acronym
ABCDE- Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter greater than 6 mm, and Elevation
30
Be alert for Steven-Johnson syndrome with which meds (2)?
Meds like carbamazepine, lamotrigine
31
Many psychotropics can cause blurry vision, which one has increased risk of cataracts (hint: one of the atypical antipsychotics)?
Quetiapine (Seroquel)
32
Tympanic membrane normal appearance
translucent pearly gray w/out retractions or bulges
33
Normal breath sounds include all of the following except: a. vesicular over peripheral lung b. bronchovesicular over 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces at sternal border c. bronchial over the trachea d. bronchial over the peripheral lunch
bronchial over peripheral lung,
34
True or False: Lithium and anorexia nervosa can cause peripheral edema
True
35
True or False: It is normal to hear tympany over the small and large intestine
True
36
True or False: It is normal to hear tympany over organs and a distended bladder
False, it is normal to hear dullness
37
True or False: The liver and spleen can normally be palpated
False, but the liver can sometimes be palpable in thin pts
38
Common indicators of child abuse include all except: a. hx of unexplained multiple fractures b. burns, hand or bite marks c. injuries at various stages of healing d. bruises on knees e. evidence of neglect
d. bruises on knees, instead would be bruises on padded parts of the body
39
Thyroid gland function: Take _____ from circulating blood, combine it with the amino acid ______, and convert to the thyroid hormones ____ and _____.
-iodine from circulating blood -tyrosine -T3 and T4 -Also stores T3, T4 until they're released into bloodstream under influence of TSH (released from pituitary)
40
True or False: Only a small amount of T3 and T4 are bound to protein
True
41
True or False: The free portion of the thyroid hormones is the true determinant of thyroid status
True
42
Free thyroxine T4 (FT4) normal value
FT4 (0.8 to 2.8 ng/dl)
43
FT4 test commonly done for all of the following except: a. determine thyroid status b. rule out hypothyroidism c. rule out hyperthyroidism d. evaluate thyroid therapy e. all of these are correct
e. all are correct
44
Diseases that have increased thyroid levels include all of the following except: a. Graves disease b. primary hypotension c. thyrotoxicosis due to T4 d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis e. acute thyroiditis
b. primary hypotension, this has decreased thyroid levels
45
Diseases that have decreased thyroid levels include all of these except: a. Graves disease b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary hypothyroidism c. thyrotoxicosis due to T3 d. renal failure e. Cushing's syndrome f. cirrhosis
a. Graves, this is due to increased thyroid levels note that: -Secondary hypothyroidism (pituitary insufficiency) -Tertiary hypothyroidism (hypothalamic failure)
46
All of these might increase thyroid values during treatment except: a. heparin b. methadone c. aspirin d. propranolol
b. methadone, which might decrease thyroid values (pg. 87)
47
What meds might decrease thyroid values during treatment? (2 things)
furosemide (Lasix) or methadone (pg. 87)
48
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) normal value
TSH (2-10 mU/l)
49
Stimulation of thyroid gland by TSH causes...
release and distribution of stored thyroid hormones
50
True or False: when T4 and T3 are high, TSH secretion decreases
True, and when T3,T4 are low, TSH increases
51
Why do TSH levels rise in primary hyperthyroidism?
Because of low levels of thyroid hormone
52
What happens with TSH if pituitary gland fails
TSH not secreted and blood levels of TSH fall
53
Diseases w/ increased TSH levels include (2)
-Primary hypothyroidism -Thyroiditis
54
Diseases w/ decreased TSH levels (2)
-Hyperthyroidism -Secondary or tertiary hypothyroidism
55
What meds might decrease TSH
Tx w/ T3, acetylsalicylic acid, corticosteroids, and heparin
56
True or False: Systemic effects of hyperthyroidism can mimic symptoms of bipolar affective disorders
True
57
Systemic effects of hyperthyroidism include all of these except: a. heat intolerance/excess sweating b. tremor c. palpitations, tachycardia, dysrhythmias d. increased appetite, weight loss e. muscle aches or stiffness f. motor restlessness, fatigue, insomnia
e. muscle aches and stiffness are signs of hypothyroidism other sings of hyperthyroidism include: -short attention span, emotional lability, compulsive movement -impotence -abdominal pain -flushing -elevated upper eyelid leading to decreased blinking, staring, fine tremor of eyelid -anxiety -increased frequency of bowel movements, and shortness of breath
58
Systemic effects of hypothyroidism include all of these except: a. confusion b. decreased appetite, constipation, weight gain c. headaches
-confusion, lethargy, memory loss -decrease libido, impotence -decrease appetite, constipation, weight gain, fluid retention -headaches -slow or clumsy movements, syncope -muscle aching and stiffness, slowed reflexes -somatic discomfort (aching and joint stiffness) -sensory disturbance (hearing) -cerebellar ataxia -loss of amplitude in ECG
59
Calcium (Ca) normal value
(8.8-10.5 mg/dl)
60
Ca <7.0 mg/dl is associated w/...
tetany
61
Ca >11.0 mg/dl associated w/...
hyperparathyroidism
62
Ca > 13.5 mg/dl associated w/
hypercalcemic coma and metastatic cancer
63
Where is most Ca (99%) located?
bone - remainder is in the plasma and body cells
64
Of the Ca in plasma, what percent is bound to plasma proteins?
50% --> 40% in free ionized form and the remaining % circulates in the blood
65
Which electrolyte is the major cation for the structure of bones and teeth?
Ca
66
Functions of Ca (6 things)
-Enzymatic cofactor for blood clotting Required for: -hormone secretion -function of cell receptors -plasma membrane stability and permeability -transmission of nerve impulses -contraction of muscles
67
Which 3 hormones mediate Ca balance?
parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and calcitonin -they determine amount of dietary Ca absorption, reabsorption and excretion by kidneys
68
Increased Ca levels can cause (7 things)
-Acidosis -Hyperparathyroidism -Cancers (bone, leukemia, myeloma) -Med interactions (thiazide diuretics, hormones, vitamin D, Ca) -Vit D intox -Addison's disease -Hyperthyroidism
69
Decreased Ca levels can cause (6 things)
-Alkalosis -Hypoparathyroidism -Renal failure -Pancreatitis -Inadequate dietary intake of Ca, vitamin D -Med interactions (barbiturates, anticonvulsants, acetazolammide, adrenocorticosteroids
70
Ca values can be increased by...
-Excessive ingestion of milk,during tx w/ lithium, thiazide diuretics, alkaline antacids, or Vit D
71
Ca values can be decreased by...
tx w/ anticonvulsants, aspirin, calcitonin*, corticosteroids, heparin, laxatives, diuretics, albuterol, and oral contraceptives
72
Systemic effects hypocalcemia (long list)
*Increase in neuromuscular activity -confusion -parasthesias (around mouth and digits) -muscle spasms (hands and feet), continuous and severe spasms *hyperreflexia -convulsions *tetany *prolonged QT interval -intestinal cramping -hyperactive bowel sounds
73
Systemic effects of hypercalcemia (long list)
*Fatigue/weakness/lethargy -anorexia -nausea/constipation -behavioral changes -impaired renal function *bradycardia/heart block -shortened QT interval, depressed T waves
74
Sodium (Na) normal value
135-148 mEq/l)
75
Which electrolyte accounts for 90% of the extracellular fluid cations?
Na, also the most powerful cation in the extracellular fluid
76
Na functions
Regulates: -osmolality (interstitial & intravascular volume) -acid-base balance -renal retention and excretion of water Works w/ K and Ca to maintain neuromuscular irritability for conduction of nerve impulses Participates in cellular chemical reactions and membrane transport Maintains systemic BP
77
Increased Na can cause (6 things)
*Hypovolemia *Dehydration -Diabetes insipidus -excessive salt ingestion -gastroenteritis -med interactions (adrenocorticosteroids, methyldopa, hydralazine, cough medicine)
78
Decreased Na can cause
-Addison's disease -Renal disorder -GI fluid loss from vomiting, diarrhea, nasogastric suction, ileus -diuresis -med interactions (lithium, vasopressin, diuretics)
79
Systemic effects hyponatremia (<135 mEq/l) (long list)
*Lethargy *Headache *confusion -apprehension -seizures -coma *hypotension *tachycardia -decreased urine output -weight gain, edema -ascites -jugular vein distension
80
Systemic effects hypernatremia (>147 mEq/l)
-convulsions *pulmonary edema -thirst -fever -dry mucous membranes *hypotension *tachycardia -low jugular venous pressure -restlessness
81
Magnesium (Mg) normal value
1.3-2.1 mEq/l
82
40% to 60% of Mg is stored in:
bone and muscle -30% stored in cells
83
True or False: A small amount of Mg is stored in serum, with 1/3 bound to plasma proteins and the rest in ionized form
True
84
Which organ primarily regulates Mg metabolism?
Kidney
85
True or False: high serum levels cause renal conversion of Mg
False, LOW serum levels cause renal conversion
86
Functions of Mg
-cofactor in intracellular enzymatic reactions -cause of neuromuscular excitability
87
Increased levels of Mg can indicate
-Addison's disease -Adrenalectomy -renal failure -dehydration, diabetic ketoacidosis -hypothyroidism -hyperthyroidism
88
Decreased levels of Mg can indicate
-Hyperaldosteronism -Hypokalemia -diabetic ketoacidosis -malnutrition and alcoholism, malabsoprtion syndrome -acute pancreatitis -GI loss from vomiting, diarrhea, nasogastric suction, & fistula - pregnancy-induced hypertension
89
True or False: Hemolysis of a sample leads to falsely elevated levels of Mg
True
90
Mg values can be increased by which drugs? (4 things)
antacids, laxatives containing Mg, salicylates and lithium
91
Mg values can be decreased by which drugs? (7 things)
thiazide diuretics, calcium gluconate*, insulin, amphotericin B, neomycin, aldosterone, and ethanol
92
Systemic effects hypomagnesemia (Mg <1.5 mEq/l)
*depression -confusion, irritability -increased reflexes -muscle weakness -ataxia -nystagmus -tetany -convulsions
93
Systemic effects hypermagnesemia (Mg >2.5 mEq/L)
-nausea/vomiting -muscle weakness -hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression -depressed skeletal muscle contraction and nerve function
94
Chloride (Cl) normal value
98-106 mEq/L
95
True or False: Cl is a major anion in the extracellular fluid
True
96
Cl function
-provides electroneutrality in relation to Na
97
True or False: transport of Cl is active
False, transport of Cl is passive and follows active transport if Na, so increases and decreases are proportional to changes in Na
98
Increased Cl can indicate
-acidosis -hyperkalemia, hypernatremia -dehydration -renal failure -Cushing's syndrome -Hyperventilation -anemia
99
Decreased Cl can indicate (7 things)
-alkalosis -hypokalemia, hyponatremia -GI loss from vomiting, diarrhea, nasogastric suction, and fistula -diuresis, overhydration -Addison's disease -burns
100
What can lead to falsely decreased levels of Cl? (2 things)
elevated serum triglyceride levels and myeloma proteins
101
What might increase Cl levels? (5 things)
potassium chloride, acetazolamide, methyldopa, diazoxide, and guanethidine (pg. 93)
102
What might decrease Cl levels? (4 things)
ethacrynic acid, furosemide, thiazide diuretics, and bicarbonate
103
True or False: There are no specific symptoms associated w/ Cl increase or decrease
True
104
Potassium (K+) normal value
3.5-5.1 mEq/l (extracellular) Intracellular 150-160 mEq/l
105
True or False: K+ is the major intracellular electrolyte
True
106
What is the estimated total body K+? (mEq/l)
4,000 mEq/l, w/ most located in the cells
107
K+ function
*Predominant intracellular ion -regulates intracellular fluid osmolality -provides balance for intracellular electrical neutrality -maintains resting membrane potential -assists in transmission and conduction of nerve impulses -maintain normal cardiac rhythms -maintain skeletal and smooth muscle contraction
108
True or False: K+ is required for glycogen deposition in the liver and skeletal muscles
True
109
How is K+ regulated? (4 things)
By the kidney, aldosterone levels, insulin secretion, and changes in pH
110
Increased K+ can indicate
*acidosis -insulin deficiency -Addison's disease -acute renal failure -hypoaldosteronism -infection -dehydration
111
Decreased K+ levels can indicate
*alkalosis -excessive insulin -GI loss -laxative abuse -burns -trauma -surgery -Cushing's syndrome -hyperaldosteronism -thyrotoxicosis -anorexia nervosa -diet deficient in meat and veggies
112
False elevations of K+ occur w/
vigorous hand pumping during venipuncture, hemolysis of sample, or high platelet counts during clotting
113
False decreases of K+ occur w/
anticoagulated samples left at room temp
114
Which drugs can decrease K+
furosemide, ethacrynic acid, thiazide diuretics, insulin, aspirin, prednisone, cortisone, gentamycin, lithium*, laxatives*
115
Which drugs can increase K+
amphotericin B, tetracycline, heparin, epinephrine, potassium-sparing diuretics, and isoniazid
116
True or False: marijuana use can elevate K+ level
True
117
Systemic effects of hyperkalemia ( K+ >5.5 mEq/l
*Muscle weakness, paralysis -tingling of lips and fingers* -restlessness -intestinal cramping, diarrhea -ECG changes: narrow and tall T waves --mild =shortened QT interval --severe= depressed ST segment, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, leading to cardiac arrest
118
Systemic effects of hypokalemia ( K+ <3.5 mEq/l
-impaired carbohydrate metabolism -impaired renal function -polyuria, polydipsia -skeletal muscle weakness -smooth muscle atony -cardiac dysrhythmias -paralysis and respiratory arrest
119
Liver function tested use to...
Monitor liver disease or damage cause by hepatotoxic drugs, confirmed by elevated levels
120
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) normal value
5-35 U/I
121
ALT function
enzyme produced by the liver that acts as a catalyst in the transamination reaction necessary for amino acid production
122
True or False: ALT is found in moderate amounts in body fluids, heart, kidneys, and skeletal muscles
True, in moderate amounts Found in HIGH amounts in the liver
123
What happens to ALT levels when liver damage occurs?
levels rise to as much as 50 times normal
124
Pronounced elevated ALT levels >300 U/I could indicate
liver disease or damage: -hepatic cancer -hepatitis -infectious mononucleosis
125
Moderate elevated levels of ALT (100-300 U/I) could indicate
-biliary tract obstruction -recent CVA -muscle injury from IM injection, trauma, infection, and seizures -muscular dystrophy -acute pancreatitis -intestinal injury -MI, CHF -renal failure -severe burns
126
What can cause falsely decreased levels of ALT? (2 things)
hemodialysis and uremia
127
What meds can increase ALT? (long list)
-acetaminophen -allopurinol -aspirin -ampicillin -carbamazepine* -cephalosporins -codeine -digitalis -indomethacin -heparin -isoniazid -methotrexate -methyldopa -oral contraceptives -phenothiazines -propranolol -tetracycline -verapamil
128
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) normal value
5-40 U/I
129
AST exists in large amounts in both the liver and _______?
myocardial cells* -also exists in small but significant amounts in skeletal muscles, kidneys, pancreas, and brain
130
What causes serum AST to rise?
cellular damage to the tissues in which the enzyme is found
131
Pronounced elevation AST (>5x normal) could indicate
-acute hepatocellular damage -MI, shock -acute pancreatitis -infectious mononucleosis
132
Moderate elevation AST (3-5x normal) could indicate
-biliary tract obstruction -cardiac arrhythmias, CHF -liver tumors -chronic hepatitis -muscular dystrophy -dermatomyositis
133
Slight elevation AST (2-3x normal) could indicate
-pericarditis -cirrhosis, fatty liver -pulmonary infarction *delirium tremens -CVA -hemolytic anemia
134
True or False: Exercise can increase AST levels
True
135
Which drugs can increase AST levels?
antihypertensives, cholinergic agents, anticoagulants, digitalis, erythromycin, isoniazid, methyldopa, oral contraceptives, opiates, salicylates, hepatotoxic meds, and verapamil
136
Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) normal value
10-38 IU/I
137
GGT function
-is an isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase that assists w/ the transfer of amino acids and peptides across cellular membranes
138
Which tissues contain large amounts of GGT? (3 things)
-hepatobiliary tissue -renal tubular and pancreatic epithelium
139
True or False: other sources of GGT include prostate gland, brain and heart
True
140
GGT can be used to evaluate and monitor a client with suspected _____
alcohol abuse -levels rise even after ingestion of small amounts of alcohol -also used to eval elevated alkaline phosphatase of uncertain etiology
141
True or False: late increases in GGT are found in hepatic disease
False, pronounced EARLY increases found
142
Modest elevation in GGT occurs in ____ or _____ disease
pancreatic or renal disease
143
Elevated GGT could indicate (long list)
-hepatobiliary tract disorders -hepatocellular carcinoma -hepatocellular degeneration (cirrhosis) -hepatitis -pancreatic or renal cell damage or neoplasm -CHF, acute MI (after 4-10 days) -hyperlipoproteinemia -diabetes mellitus w/ HTN -seizure disorder -significant alcohol ingestion
144
What drugs elevate GGT? (3 things)
alcohol, barbiturates, & phenytoin
145
What lowers GGT? (3 things)
late pregnancy, oral contraceptives, and clofibrate