Ch. 6 Advanced Health Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

All of these are primitive reflexes that should be checked in infants except:
a. head lag b. ulnar c. rooting d. grasping e. Moro f. Babinski g. glabellar

A

b. ulnar

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2
Q

In infants, which of these is demonstrated when the head is not righted but lags posteriorly behind the trunk as a result of poor head and neck control:
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

a. head lag

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3
Q

Which of these is a normal reflex for an infant when he or she is startled or feels like they are falling. Arms will fling out sideways with the palms up and the thumbs flexed:
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

b. Moro (startle reflex)

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4
Q

Which of these is positive when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked, dorsiflexion of the great toe and fanning of the other toes occurs (normal up to 2 years of age):
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

c. Babinski sign

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5
Q

Which of these is a reflex that is elicited by repetitive tapping on the forehead. Normal subjects usually blink in response to the first several taps:
a. head lag b. Moro reflex c. Babinski sign d. glabellar

A

d. glabellar reflex, if blinking persists, the response is abnormal and considered to be a sign of frontal release

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6
Q

Cranial Nerve I and test

A

Olfactory - Test sense of smell, nasal passages patent, have client close eyes and test each nostril separate

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7
Q

Cranial Nerve II and test

A

Optic - Relay messages from eyes to the brain to create visual images
- Test vision using Snellen chart (or other chart), examen inner aspect of eyes, test peripheral vision w/ confrontation test

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8
Q

Cranial Nerve III and test

A

Oculomotor : Allows movement of the eye muscles, constriction of the pupil, focusing the eyes and the position of the upper eyelid. Works with other cranial nerves to control eye movements.
-Test EOMs, check pupils (PERRLA), corneal reflex
-Test this nerve with IV and VI

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9
Q

Cranial Nerve IV and test

A

Trochlear: Enables movement in the eye’s superior oblique muscle. Makes it possible to look down. Enables you to move your eyes toward your nose or away from it
-Test w/ III and VI

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10
Q

Cranial Nerve V and test

A

Trigeminal: 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve (the ophthalmic, mandibular, and maxillary divisions). The ophthalmic and maxillary nerves are purely sensory. The mandibular nerve has sensory and motor functions
Test: -Motor - palpate masseter muscles while client clenches teeth, look for disparity between the two muscles, tremor of lips, involuntary chewing, masticatory muscle spams
-Sensory-: Test tactile perception of facial skin, corneal reflex, superficial pain, sense of touch in oral mucosa

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11
Q

Cranial Nerve VI and Test

A

Abducens: Innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus muscle and partially innervate the contralateral medial rectus muscle - able to move eye outwards
Test w/ III and IV

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12
Q

Cranial Nerve VII and Test

A

Facial- controls the muscles that help with smile, frown, wrinkle the nose, and raise the eyebrows and forehead
-Inspect face for flaccid paralysis
-Have client elevate eyebrows, wrinkle forehead, close eyes, frown, smile, puff cheeks

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13
Q

Cranial Nerve VIII and Test

A

Acoustic - transfers auditory information from the cochlea (auditory area of the inner ear) to the brain
-enables effective hearing
check hearing w/ audiometer or by whisper test
-check hearing loss using Weber and Rinne tests

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14
Q

Cranial Nerve IX and Test

A

Glossopharyngeal - provides motor, parasympathetic and sensory information to your mouth and throat
-test with cranial nerve X

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15
Q

Cranial Nerve X and Test

A

Vagus- main nerves of the parasympathetic nervous system. This system controls specific body functions such as digestion, heart rate and immune system
-Test for elevation of uvula by having client open their mouth and say “ah”, test gag reflex

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16
Q

Cranial Nerve XI and Test

A

Accessory spinal- essential for neck and shoulder movement, the intrinsic musculature of the larynx, and the sensitive afferences of the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid musculature
-test strength of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles against resistance of your hands

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17
Q

Cranial Nerve XII and Test

A

Hypoglossal -enables tongue movement -controls the hyoglossus, intrinsic, genioglossus and styloglossus muscles. These muscles allow pt to speak, swallow and move substances around in their mouth
-Look for tremors and other involuntary movements when client protrudes their tongue

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18
Q

Test equilibrium of pt

A

Romberg test - have client stand straight w/ feet together, arms by sides, eyes closed. Slight swaying is normal, should be able to sustain pose for approx 5 sec. More than slight swaying suggests cerebellar ataxia or vestibular dysfunction

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19
Q

Which of these is the ability to perform rapid alternating movements (pat knees alternating palm and back of hands, touch thumb to each finger):
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

a. diadochokinesia, Pt should be able to smoothly execute and maintain rhythm.
-Inability to perform rapids alternating movements; result of a lesion to the posterior lobe of the cerebellum

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20
Q

Which of these includes finger-to-nose test and heel-to-knee test?:
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

b. dyssynergia

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21
Q

Which of these test ability for pt to distinguish forms by placing objects in their hand while their eyes are closed:
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

c. stereogenesis

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22
Q

Which of these tests ability to identify figures, letters, words by tracing the figure on the skin of the palm of the hand:
a. diadochokinesia b. dyssynergia c. stereogenesis d. graphesthesia

A

d. graphesthesia

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23
Q

Inability to discriminate between objects based on touch alone is called ______; can be the result of a lesion in the ____lobe

A

-astereogenesis
-parietal

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24
Q

Inability to recognize letters/numbers “drawn” on the pts hand w/ a pointed object is called ______

A

-agraphesthesia

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25
Q

Greater than what percentile for BMI places a child at increased risk for being overweight?

A

> 85th percentile

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26
Q

Normal, Overweight and Obese BMI range

A

Normal: 20-25
Overweight: 26-29
Obese: 30-35

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27
Q

High BMI = risk factor for all of the following except: a. diabetes b. heart disease c. stroke d. hypotension e. osteoarthritis f. some forms of cancer

A

d. hypotension, instead is risk factor for hypertension

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28
Q

Pt taking carbamazepine or clozapine with an elevated temp… what should you be concerned about?

A

Agranulocytosis (pg.83)

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29
Q

Cancerous mole acronym

A

ABCDE- Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter greater than 6 mm, and Elevation

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30
Q

Be alert for Steven-Johnson syndrome with which meds (2)?

A

Meds like carbamazepine, lamotrigine

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31
Q

Many psychotropics can cause blurry vision, which one has increased risk of cataracts (hint: one of the atypical antipsychotics)?

A

Quetiapine (Seroquel)

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32
Q

Tympanic membrane normal appearance

A

translucent pearly gray w/out retractions or bulges

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33
Q

Normal breath sounds include all of the following except:
a. vesicular over peripheral lung b. bronchovesicular over 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces at sternal border c. bronchial over the trachea d. bronchial over the peripheral lunch

A

bronchial over peripheral lung,

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34
Q

True or False: Lithium and anorexia nervosa can cause peripheral edema

A

True

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35
Q

True or False: It is normal to hear tympany over the small and large intestine

A

True

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36
Q

True or False: It is normal to hear tympany over organs and a distended bladder

A

False, it is normal to hear dullness

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37
Q

True or False: The liver and spleen can normally be palpated

A

False, but the liver can sometimes be palpable in thin pts

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38
Q

Common indicators of child abuse include all except: a. hx of unexplained multiple fractures b. burns, hand or bite marks c. injuries at various stages of healing d. bruises on knees e. evidence of neglect

A

d. bruises on knees, instead would be bruises on padded parts of the body

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39
Q

Thyroid gland function:
Take _____ from circulating blood, combine it with the amino acid ______, and convert to the thyroid hormones ____ and _____.

A

-iodine from circulating blood
-tyrosine
-T3 and T4
-Also stores T3, T4 until they’re released into bloodstream under influence of TSH (released from pituitary)

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40
Q

True or False: Only a small amount of T3 and T4 are bound to protein

A

True

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41
Q

True or False: The free portion of the thyroid hormones is the true determinant of thyroid status

A

True

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42
Q

Free thyroxine T4 (FT4) normal value

A

FT4 (0.8 to 2.8 ng/dl)

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43
Q

FT4 test commonly done for all of the following except:
a. determine thyroid status b. rule out hypothyroidism c. rule out hyperthyroidism d. evaluate thyroid therapy e. all of these are correct

A

e. all are correct

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44
Q

Diseases that have increased thyroid levels include all of the following except:
a. Graves disease b. primary hypotension c. thyrotoxicosis due to T4 d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis e. acute thyroiditis

A

b. primary hypotension, this has decreased thyroid levels

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45
Q

Diseases that have decreased thyroid levels include all of these except:
a. Graves disease b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary hypothyroidism c. thyrotoxicosis due to T3 d. renal failure e. Cushing’s syndrome f. cirrhosis

A

a. Graves, this is due to increased thyroid levels
note that:
-Secondary hypothyroidism (pituitary insufficiency)
-Tertiary hypothyroidism (hypothalamic failure)

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46
Q

All of these might increase thyroid values during treatment except:
a. heparin b. methadone c. aspirin d. propranolol

A

b. methadone, which might decrease thyroid values (pg. 87)

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47
Q

What meds might decrease thyroid values during treatment? (2 things)

A

furosemide (Lasix) or methadone (pg. 87)

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48
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) normal value

A

TSH (2-10 mU/l)

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49
Q

Stimulation of thyroid gland by TSH causes…

A

release and distribution of stored thyroid hormones

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50
Q

True or False: when T4 and T3 are high, TSH secretion decreases

A

True,
and when T3,T4 are low, TSH increases

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51
Q

Why do TSH levels rise in primary hyperthyroidism?

A

Because of low levels of thyroid hormone

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52
Q

What happens with TSH if pituitary gland fails

A

TSH not secreted and blood levels of TSH fall

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53
Q

Diseases w/ increased TSH levels include (2)

A

-Primary hypothyroidism
-Thyroiditis

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54
Q

Diseases w/ decreased TSH levels (2)

A

-Hyperthyroidism
-Secondary or tertiary hypothyroidism

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55
Q

What meds might decrease TSH

A

Tx w/ T3, acetylsalicylic acid, corticosteroids, and heparin

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56
Q

True or False: Systemic effects of hyperthyroidism can mimic symptoms of bipolar affective disorders

A

True

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57
Q

Systemic effects of hyperthyroidism include all of these except:
a. heat intolerance/excess sweating b. tremor
c. palpitations, tachycardia, dysrhythmias d. increased appetite, weight loss e. muscle aches or stiffness f. motor restlessness, fatigue, insomnia

A

e. muscle aches and stiffness are signs of hypothyroidism
other sings of hyperthyroidism include:
-short attention span, emotional lability, compulsive movement
-impotence
-abdominal pain
-flushing
-elevated upper eyelid leading to decreased blinking, staring, fine tremor of eyelid
-anxiety
-increased frequency of bowel movements, and shortness of breath

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58
Q

Systemic effects of hypothyroidism include all of these except:
a. confusion b. decreased appetite, constipation, weight gain c. headaches

A

-confusion, lethargy, memory loss
-decrease libido, impotence
-decrease appetite, constipation, weight gain, fluid retention
-headaches
-slow or clumsy movements, syncope
-muscle aching and stiffness, slowed reflexes
-somatic discomfort (aching and joint stiffness)
-sensory disturbance (hearing)
-cerebellar ataxia
-loss of amplitude in ECG

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59
Q

Calcium (Ca) normal value

A

(8.8-10.5 mg/dl)

60
Q

Ca <7.0 mg/dl is associated w/…

A

tetany

61
Q

Ca >11.0 mg/dl associated w/…

A

hyperparathyroidism

62
Q

Ca > 13.5 mg/dl associated w/

A

hypercalcemic coma and metastatic cancer

63
Q

Where is most Ca (99%) located?

A

bone - remainder is in the plasma and body cells

64
Q

Of the Ca in plasma, what percent is bound to plasma proteins?

A

50%
–> 40% in free ionized form and the remaining % circulates in the blood

65
Q

Which electrolyte is the major cation for the structure of bones and teeth?

A

Ca

66
Q

Functions of Ca (6 things)

A

-Enzymatic cofactor for blood clotting
Required for:
-hormone secretion
-function of cell receptors
-plasma membrane stability and permeability
-transmission of nerve impulses
-contraction of muscles

67
Q

Which 3 hormones mediate Ca balance?

A

parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and calcitonin
-they determine amount of dietary Ca absorption, reabsorption and excretion by kidneys

68
Q

Increased Ca levels can cause (7 things)

A

-Acidosis
-Hyperparathyroidism
-Cancers (bone, leukemia, myeloma)
-Med interactions (thiazide diuretics, hormones, vitamin D, Ca)
-Vit D intox
-Addison’s disease
-Hyperthyroidism

69
Q

Decreased Ca levels can cause (6 things)

A

-Alkalosis
-Hypoparathyroidism
-Renal failure
-Pancreatitis
-Inadequate dietary intake of Ca, vitamin D
-Med interactions (barbiturates, anticonvulsants, acetazolammide, adrenocorticosteroids

70
Q

Ca values can be increased by…

A

-Excessive ingestion of milk,during tx w/ lithium, thiazide diuretics, alkaline antacids, or Vit D

71
Q

Ca values can be decreased by…

A

tx w/ anticonvulsants, aspirin, calcitonin*, corticosteroids, heparin, laxatives, diuretics, albuterol, and oral contraceptives

72
Q

Systemic effects hypocalcemia (long list)

A

*Increase in neuromuscular activity
-confusion
-parasthesias (around mouth and digits)
-muscle spasms (hands and feet), continuous and severe spasms
*hyperreflexia
-convulsions
*tetany
*prolonged QT interval
-intestinal cramping
-hyperactive bowel sounds

73
Q

Systemic effects of hypercalcemia (long list)

A

*Fatigue/weakness/lethargy
-anorexia
-nausea/constipation
-behavioral changes
-impaired renal function
*bradycardia/heart block
-shortened QT interval, depressed T waves

74
Q

Sodium (Na) normal value

A

135-148 mEq/l)

75
Q

Which electrolyte accounts for 90% of the extracellular fluid cations?

A

Na, also the most powerful cation in the extracellular fluid

76
Q

Na functions

A

Regulates:
-osmolality (interstitial & intravascular volume)
-acid-base balance
-renal retention and excretion of water
Works w/ K and Ca to maintain neuromuscular irritability for conduction of nerve impulses
Participates in cellular chemical reactions and membrane transport
Maintains systemic BP

77
Q

Increased Na can cause (6 things)

A

*Hypovolemia
*Dehydration
-Diabetes insipidus
-excessive salt ingestion
-gastroenteritis
-med interactions (adrenocorticosteroids, methyldopa, hydralazine, cough medicine)

78
Q

Decreased Na can cause

A

-Addison’s disease
-Renal disorder
-GI fluid loss from vomiting, diarrhea, nasogastric suction, ileus
-diuresis
-med interactions (lithium, vasopressin, diuretics)

79
Q

Systemic effects hyponatremia (<135 mEq/l) (long list)

A

*Lethargy
*Headache
*confusion
-apprehension
-seizures
-coma
*hypotension
*tachycardia
-decreased urine output
-weight gain, edema
-ascites
-jugular vein distension

80
Q

Systemic effects hypernatremia (>147 mEq/l)

A

-convulsions
*pulmonary edema
-thirst
-fever
-dry mucous membranes
*hypotension
*tachycardia
-low jugular venous pressure
-restlessness

81
Q

Magnesium (Mg) normal value

A

1.3-2.1 mEq/l

82
Q

40% to 60% of Mg is stored in:

A

bone and muscle
-30% stored in cells

83
Q

True or False: A small amount of Mg is stored in serum, with 1/3 bound to plasma proteins and the rest in ionized form

A

True

84
Q

Which organ primarily regulates Mg metabolism?

A

Kidney

85
Q

True or False: high serum levels cause renal conversion of Mg

A

False, LOW serum levels cause renal conversion

86
Q

Functions of Mg

A

-cofactor in intracellular enzymatic reactions
-cause of neuromuscular excitability

87
Q

Increased levels of Mg can indicate

A

-Addison’s disease
-Adrenalectomy
-renal failure
-dehydration, diabetic ketoacidosis
-hypothyroidism
-hyperthyroidism

88
Q

Decreased levels of Mg can indicate

A

-Hyperaldosteronism
-Hypokalemia
-diabetic ketoacidosis
-malnutrition and alcoholism, malabsoprtion syndrome
-acute pancreatitis
-GI loss from vomiting, diarrhea, nasogastric suction, & fistula
- pregnancy-induced hypertension

89
Q

True or False: Hemolysis of a sample leads to falsely elevated levels of Mg

A

True

90
Q

Mg values can be increased by which drugs? (4 things)

A

antacids, laxatives containing Mg, salicylates and lithium

91
Q

Mg values can be decreased by which drugs? (7 things)

A

thiazide diuretics, calcium gluconate*, insulin, amphotericin B, neomycin, aldosterone, and ethanol

92
Q

Systemic effects hypomagnesemia (Mg <1.5 mEq/l)

A

*depression
-confusion, irritability
-increased reflexes
-muscle weakness
-ataxia
-nystagmus
-tetany
-convulsions

93
Q

Systemic effects hypermagnesemia (Mg >2.5 mEq/L)

A

-nausea/vomiting
-muscle weakness
-hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression
-depressed skeletal muscle contraction and nerve function

94
Q

Chloride (Cl) normal value

A

98-106 mEq/L

95
Q

True or False: Cl is a major anion in the extracellular fluid

A

True

96
Q

Cl function

A

-provides electroneutrality in relation to Na

97
Q

True or False: transport of Cl is active

A

False, transport of Cl is passive and follows active transport if Na, so increases and decreases are proportional to changes in Na

98
Q

Increased Cl can indicate

A

-acidosis
-hyperkalemia, hypernatremia
-dehydration
-renal failure
-Cushing’s syndrome
-Hyperventilation
-anemia

99
Q

Decreased Cl can indicate (7 things)

A

-alkalosis
-hypokalemia, hyponatremia
-GI loss from vomiting, diarrhea, nasogastric suction, and fistula
-diuresis, overhydration
-Addison’s disease
-burns

100
Q

What can lead to falsely decreased levels of Cl? (2 things)

A

elevated serum triglyceride levels and myeloma proteins

101
Q

What might increase Cl levels? (5 things)

A

potassium chloride, acetazolamide, methyldopa, diazoxide, and guanethidine (pg. 93)

102
Q

What might decrease Cl levels? (4 things)

A

ethacrynic acid, furosemide, thiazide diuretics, and bicarbonate

103
Q

True or False: There are no specific symptoms associated w/ Cl increase or decrease

A

True

104
Q

Potassium (K+) normal value

A

3.5-5.1 mEq/l (extracellular)

Intracellular 150-160 mEq/l

105
Q

True or False: K+ is the major intracellular electrolyte

A

True

106
Q

What is the estimated total body K+? (mEq/l)

A

4,000 mEq/l, w/ most located in the cells

107
Q

K+ function

A

*Predominant intracellular ion
-regulates intracellular fluid osmolality
-provides balance for intracellular electrical neutrality
-maintains resting membrane potential
-assists in transmission and conduction of nerve impulses
-maintain normal cardiac rhythms
-maintain skeletal and smooth muscle contraction

108
Q

True or False: K+ is required for glycogen deposition in the liver and skeletal muscles

A

True

109
Q

How is K+ regulated? (4 things)

A

By the kidney, aldosterone levels, insulin secretion, and changes in pH

110
Q

Increased K+ can indicate

A

*acidosis
-insulin deficiency
-Addison’s disease
-acute renal failure
-hypoaldosteronism
-infection
-dehydration

111
Q

Decreased K+ levels can indicate

A

*alkalosis
-excessive insulin
-GI loss
-laxative abuse
-burns
-trauma
-surgery
-Cushing’s syndrome
-hyperaldosteronism
-thyrotoxicosis
-anorexia nervosa
-diet deficient in meat and veggies

112
Q

False elevations of K+ occur w/

A

vigorous hand pumping during venipuncture, hemolysis of sample, or high platelet counts during clotting

113
Q

False decreases of K+ occur w/

A

anticoagulated samples left at room temp

114
Q

Which drugs can decrease K+

A

furosemide, ethacrynic acid, thiazide diuretics, insulin, aspirin, prednisone, cortisone, gentamycin, lithium, laxatives

115
Q

Which drugs can increase K+

A

amphotericin B, tetracycline, heparin, epinephrine, potassium-sparing diuretics, and isoniazid

116
Q

True or False: marijuana use can elevate K+ level

A

True

117
Q

Systemic effects of hyperkalemia ( K+ >5.5 mEq/l

A

Muscle weakness, paralysis
-tingling of lips and fingers

-restlessness
-intestinal cramping, diarrhea
-ECG changes: narrow and tall T waves
–mild =shortened QT interval
–severe= depressed ST segment, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, leading to cardiac arrest

118
Q

Systemic effects of hypokalemia ( K+ <3.5 mEq/l

A

-impaired carbohydrate metabolism
-impaired renal function
-polyuria, polydipsia
-skeletal muscle weakness
-smooth muscle atony
-cardiac dysrhythmias
-paralysis and respiratory arrest

119
Q

Liver function tested use to…

A

Monitor liver disease or damage cause by hepatotoxic drugs, confirmed by elevated levels

120
Q

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) normal value

A

5-35 U/I

121
Q

ALT function

A

enzyme produced by the liver that acts as a catalyst in the transamination reaction necessary for amino acid production

122
Q

True or False: ALT is found in moderate amounts in body fluids, heart, kidneys, and skeletal muscles

A

True, in moderate amounts
Found in HIGH amounts in the liver

123
Q

What happens to ALT levels when liver damage occurs?

A

levels rise to as much as 50 times normal

124
Q

Pronounced elevated ALT levels >300 U/I could indicate

A

liver disease or damage:
-hepatic cancer
-hepatitis
-infectious mononucleosis

125
Q

Moderate elevated levels of ALT (100-300 U/I) could indicate

A

-biliary tract obstruction
-recent CVA
-muscle injury from IM injection, trauma, infection, and seizures
-muscular dystrophy
-acute pancreatitis
-intestinal injury
-MI, CHF
-renal failure
-severe burns

126
Q

What can cause falsely decreased levels of ALT? (2 things)

A

hemodialysis and uremia

127
Q

What meds can increase ALT? (long list)

A

-acetaminophen
-allopurinol
-aspirin
-ampicillin
-carbamazepine*
-cephalosporins
-codeine
-digitalis
-indomethacin
-heparin
-isoniazid
-methotrexate
-methyldopa
-oral contraceptives
-phenothiazines
-propranolol
-tetracycline
-verapamil

128
Q

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) normal value

A

5-40 U/I

129
Q

AST exists in large amounts in both the liver and _______?

A

myocardial cells*
-also exists in small but significant amounts in skeletal muscles, kidneys, pancreas, and brain

130
Q

What causes serum AST to rise?

A

cellular damage to the tissues in which the enzyme is found

131
Q

Pronounced elevation AST (>5x normal) could indicate

A

-acute hepatocellular damage
-MI, shock
-acute pancreatitis
-infectious mononucleosis

132
Q

Moderate elevation AST (3-5x normal) could indicate

A

-biliary tract obstruction
-cardiac arrhythmias, CHF
-liver tumors
-chronic hepatitis
-muscular dystrophy
-dermatomyositis

133
Q

Slight elevation AST (2-3x normal) could indicate

A

-pericarditis
-cirrhosis, fatty liver
-pulmonary infarction
*delirium tremens
-CVA
-hemolytic anemia

134
Q

True or False: Exercise can increase AST levels

A

True

135
Q

Which drugs can increase AST levels?

A

antihypertensives, cholinergic agents, anticoagulants, digitalis, erythromycin, isoniazid, methyldopa, oral contraceptives, opiates, salicylates, hepatotoxic meds, and verapamil

136
Q

Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) normal value

A

10-38 IU/I

137
Q

GGT function

A

-is an isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase that assists w/ the transfer of amino acids and peptides across cellular membranes

138
Q

Which tissues contain large amounts of GGT? (3 things)

A

-hepatobiliary tissue
-renal tubular and pancreatic epithelium

139
Q

True or False: other sources of GGT include prostate gland, brain and heart

A

True

140
Q

GGT can be used to evaluate and monitor a client with suspected _____

A

alcohol abuse
-levels rise even after ingestion of small amounts of alcohol
-also used to eval elevated alkaline phosphatase of uncertain etiology

141
Q

True or False: late increases in GGT are found in hepatic disease

A

False, pronounced EARLY increases found

142
Q

Modest elevation in GGT occurs in ____ or _____ disease

A

pancreatic or renal disease

143
Q

Elevated GGT could indicate (long list)

A

-hepatobiliary tract disorders
-hepatocellular carcinoma
-hepatocellular degeneration (cirrhosis)
-hepatitis
-pancreatic or renal cell damage or neoplasm
-CHF, acute MI (after 4-10 days)
-hyperlipoproteinemia
-diabetes mellitus w/ HTN
-seizure disorder
-significant alcohol ingestion

144
Q

What drugs elevate GGT? (3 things)

A

alcohol, barbiturates, & phenytoin

145
Q

What lowers GGT? (3 things)

A

late pregnancy, oral contraceptives, and clofibrate