Ch 4 - Federal Aviations Regulations - Questions 411 - 461 Flashcards

1
Q

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

A

Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircrafts takeoff and landing distance data

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2
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

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3
Q

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must

A

Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use

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4
Q

You are PIC of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range o your aircraft. As part of you preflight planning you must

A

Obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel, requirements for the flight

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5
Q

Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

A

Takeoffs and landings

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6
Q

Which best describes the flight conditions under which crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

A

Safety belts during takeoff and landing an while on route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

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7
Q

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

A

The PIC must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff and landing

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8
Q

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

A

Taxi, takeoffs and landings

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9
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs and landings only.

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10
Q

You are planning a trio and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should

A

Explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing

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11
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A

Except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

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12
Q

An airplane and an airship, are covering. If the airship is left of the airplanes position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

The airship

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13
Q

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

A

At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

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14
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A

Glider

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15
Q

When aircraft has right-of-way overall other air traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress

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16
Q

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

A

Both pilots should give way to the right

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17
Q

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but on head-on?

A

The aircraft on the left shall give way

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18
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?

A

Aircraft towing other aircraft

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19
Q

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right of way?

A

The seaplane

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20
Q

When flying a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 kts

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21
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 kts

22
Q

When flying in airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 kts

23
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

A

200 kts

24
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A

An altitude allowing, if a power until fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

25
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

26
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operate closer than what distance from nay person, vessel, vehicle, or, structure?

A

500 feet

27
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

28
Q

According to 14 CFR part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing?

A

An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power until fails

29
Q

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A

Th current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation

30
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

A

The elevation of the departure area

31
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL

32
Q

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC

33
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the PIC may

A

Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency

34
Q

As PIC of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from ATC clearance?

A

In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

35
Q

When an ATC clearance has bee obtained, no PIC may deviate from that clearance unless the pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

A

An emergency

36
Q

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviated from an ATC inspection during an emergency and is given priority?

A

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief to the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

37
Q

As PIC of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when

A

There is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action

38
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough toffy to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 mins at normal cruising speed.

39
Q

What is the specific fuel requirements for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 mins at normal cruising speed

40
Q

Which VFR causing altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet

A

5,500 feet

41
Q

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?

A

Odd thousand plus 500 feet

42
Q

Which VFR causing altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?

A

4,500 feet

43
Q

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising aircraft altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

A

Magnetic course of 0 degrees though 179 degrees

44
Q

According to 14 CFR part 91, what is the appropriate VFR causing altitude, when above 3,000 ft. AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of 090 degrees?

A

5,500 ft.

45
Q

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

A

Operating limitations and registration certificate

46
Q

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

A

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

47
Q

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

A

During the first 5 mins after the hour

48
Q

When are non-rechargeable battier of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

A

When 50% of their useful life expires

49
Q

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replace (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)

A

After one-half battery’s useful life

50
Q

You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You Amy

A

Depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements

51
Q

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A

Sunset to sunrise