Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychology 101 > Ch 14 Psychological Disorders > Flashcards

Ch 14 Psychological Disorders Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards Sociology 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards Physics 101 flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
0
Q

Who studied rejection?

A

Philips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What percentage of people suffer from chronic depression?

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the 5 steps of rejection according to Philips

A

Seek no help=no rejection
Seek help from clergy=no rejection
Seek help from G.P=some rejection
Seek help from phychiatrist= feeling rejected
So mental patient is the final stage of rejection
Basically if you seek help from a professional, you are stigmatized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What 3 things does mental illness represent of normal behaviour?

A

Distortions, exaggerations, and impoverishments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define three reasons why we study abnormal behaviour

A

To describe and diagnose, to find causes, to predict behaviours, and to treat or modify behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is etiology?

A

To study the causation and developmental history of an illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the medical model say about mental illness?

A

That it is a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What 3 criteria are used to judge abnormality?

A

Deviance, maladaptive behaviour, personal distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How easy is it to distinguish between normality and abnormality?

A

It is very difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is comorbidity?

A

The coexistence of two or more disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is prevalence?

A

The percentage of a population that exhibits a disorder during a specified time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 5 major types of exited disorders?

A

Generalized, phobic, panic & agoraphobia, odd, and ptsd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the chief symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder?

A

Chronic, high levels of anxiety that is not tied to any specific threat. Worrying about minor issues such as illness, finances, and work. Today’s and tomorrow’s problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the chief symptoms of phobic disorder?

A

Marked by a persistent and irrational fear of an object or situation that presents no realistic danger. Eg. Claustrophobia, hydrophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the chief symptoms of panic disorder and agoraphobia?

A

Recurrent attacks of overwhelming anxiety that usually occur suddenly and unexpectedly. Agoraphobia is manifested when individuals are afraid to have panic attacks in public so they stay in their homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the chief symptoms of ocd?

A

Persistent, uncontrollable intrusions of unwanted thoughts and urges to engage in rituals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the chief symptoms of ptsd?

A

Re-experiencing the event in nightmares, flashbacks,emotional numbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the medical model say about abnormal behaviour?

A

That it’s always from the tissues/biological, that it is easily diagnosed, and that it is easily treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 4 ways we define abnormality?

A

Subjective discomfort, social non-conformity, legal criteria, and professional definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is wrong about defining abnormality by means of subjective discomfort? What things are we missing?

A

Peoples reaction may differ, ignores social consequences of disturbances, many be transient, accuracy of how you can describe how you’re feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is wrong about defining abnormality by means of social non-conformity? What things are we missing?

A

What about criminality and cultural relativity? What about people who completely conform?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is wrong about defining abnormality by legal criteria? What things are we missing?

A

How do you assess criminal responsibility? Does the person have co,potency to make decisions?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is wrong about defining abnormality by means of professional definition? What things are we missing?

A

Uses medical model, so we’re missing other parts like culture, and socialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If referring to university students, what three things would define abnormality for you?

A

Intelligibility: understands behaviour and thoughts

consistency: can you predict what you’ll be doing in the future
control: can you inhibit and impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Identify 4 disorders that start in the tissues

A

Brain damage, hypoglycaemia, and calcium deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 2 types of brain damage and how do they occur?

A

Generalized: aging, alcohol, poisonings
Specialized: abscess, tumour, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a psychodiatetic abnormality?

A

What you eat is affecting your mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why are upper classes given a better diagnosis and treatment? define 3 reasons

A

Poverty, stress diathesis (predisposition and occupation are interrelated) and prenatal care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why are people naturally anxious?

A

We do t like the idea of injury or death, we are uncertain of alliances, and we are worried that we have no purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the ways normal people deal with natural anxiety?

A

We use our science and medical equipment to prevent or help being sick. We create relationship contracts, and we attempt to refute the idea that we have no purpose by religion and theories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 3 collective traits of people with anxiety disorders?

A

High levels of negative emotion, send of lack of control, and shift to self focus and preoccupation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does a person with a phobia deal with their worries?

A

Avoid phobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do people with ocd handle their anxiety?

A

Following rituals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a conversion reaction when referring to anxiety disorders?

A

Anxiety is so bad that it manifests as physical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are three biological factors of anxiety disorders?

A

Inhibited temperament, anxiety sensitivity, and possibly neurotransmitter activity at the gaba synapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

True or false many anxiety responses may be acquired through classical conditioning and maintained through operant conditioning

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Explain Martin Seligman’s concept of preparedness

A

People are biologically prepared by Evolution to acquire some fears more easily than others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the criticisms of models of phobias?

A

Many people would phobias don’t recall dramatic conditioning, features can be acquired indirectly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or false anxiety has a week genetic predisposition?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Explain the cognitive factors of an anxiety disorder

A

Believing that there are threats around every corner of their lives, negative thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are schizophrenic disorders characterized by?

A

Deterioration of adaptive behaviour, irrational thought, delusions, hallucinations, and disturbed mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three types of schizophrenia?

A

Paranoid, catatonic, and undifferentiated. There’s also the negative and positive type, referring to lack of or excess of behavioural peculiarities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a prognosis?

A

Forecast about the probably course of an illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is epidemiology?

A

The study of the distribution of mental or physical disorders In a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the three criteria of abnormal behaviour that Tomas Szasz believes in?

A

Deviance, maladaptive behaviour, and personal distress

45
Q

What is a concordance rate?

A

The percentage of twin pairs or other pairs of relatives who exhibit the same disorder

46
Q

What is anxiety sensitivity?

A

Being aware of the symptoms of anxiety and being greatly disturbed by them, making them worse

47
Q

Many anxiety disorders may be acquired through ________ conditioning and maintained through ________ conditioning

A

Classical, operant

48
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

When a stimulus is paired with a frightening event, causing them to get anxiety when the stimulus is present

49
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Once the person avoids the stimulus that causes them anxiety, they get negative reinforcement, because avoiding the stimulus gives them a reduction in anxiety

50
Q

What is a dissociative disorder?

A

Where a person loses contact with parts of their consciousness or memory, causing problems with their sense of identity

51
Q

What are the three types of dissociative disorders?

A

Dissociative amnesia, dissociative amnesia, and dissociative fugue

52
Q

What happening in so,some with dissociative amnesia, and when is it likely to occur?

A

The have a sudden loss of memory for important personal information, it’s likely to occur after a traumatic event

53
Q

If a panic attack is cued, how does it happen, and how can you help someone suffering from one?

A

Trigger–> threat –> changes –> feeling of catastrophic things. You can suggest safety and help them regain control

54
Q

True or false, generalized anxiety disorder is the chronic phase that may lead to panic attacks

A

True

55
Q

When referring to ptsd, which type of traumas cause worse reactions, humans behaviour or natural disasters?

A

Human behaviour

56
Q

True or false, phobias are an attempt at self cure?

A

True

57
Q

What is worse, simple or social phobias? What is the difference between them?

A

Social are worse, because they are difficult to avoid. The difference is that social is about being assessed, where as simple phobias are typically objects

58
Q

True or false, compulsions can be present without obsessions?

A

False

59
Q

Can OCD be triggered by high stress?

A

Yes

60
Q

What are somatoform disorders?

A

Anxiety disorders transform to a physical form

61
Q

What is body dismorphic disorder?

A

Excessive exaggerated attitude towards a body part

62
Q

What is münchhausen syndrome?

A

Lies for admission to hospitals, it’s to gain attention of sympathy

63
Q

What is münchhausen syndrome by proxy?

A

Inducing symptoms in others and planning to save them heroically

64
Q

What is dissociative fugue?

A

People lose their memory for their entire lives along with their sense of personal identity

65
Q

what is dissociative identity disorder?

A

He coexistence In one person of two or more very different personalities

66
Q

What is the etiology of dissociative identity disorder?

A

Therapists encouragement, severe emotional trauma as a child, abuse

67
Q

What biological factors have been implicated in mood disorders?

A

Genetic vulnerability, changes in neuro chemical activity, reduced hippocampal volume , suppressed neurogenesis

68
Q

What are the principal mood disorders, and what are their symptoms?

A

Major depressive disorder= persistent feelings of sadness and despair and a loss of interest in previous sources if pleasure

Bipolar disorders= experience of one or more manic episodes as well as periods of depression

69
Q

What is cyclothymic disorder?

A

When one exhibits chronic but relatively mild symptoms of bipolar disturbance

70
Q

What are mood disorders?

A

Disorders characterized by emotional disturbances or varied kinds that may spill over into perceptual, social, physical, and thought processes

71
Q

What is dysthymic disorder?

A

Chris depression that consists of chronic depression that is insufficient in severity to justify diagnosis of major depressive disorder

72
Q

How do cognitive processes contribute to depressive disorders?

A

Negative thinking
Constant worry about ones problems
Pessimistic explanatory style

73
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

Disorders marked by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thought, deterioration of adaptive behaviour

74
Q

What are the four subtypes of schizophrenic disorders wand what are their chief symptoms?

A

Paranoid type- dominated by delusions of persecutions and thinking they’re famous
Catatonic type- striking motor disturbances, like random muscular activity
Disorganized type- severe deterioration of adaptive behaviour
Undifferentiated type- idiosyncratic mixtures of schizophrenic symptoms

75
Q

Explain the negative and positive symptom categorization of schizophrenia

A

Negative symptoms are deficits like flattened emotions, social withdrawal, impaired attention

Positive symptoms are excesses, like hallucinations, delusions, and bizarre behaviour

76
Q

What is the etiology of schizophrenia?

A

Genetic vulnerability, changes in neurotransmitter activity at dopamine synapses, enlarged ventricles

77
Q

What is expressed emotion and how does it tie into schizophrenia?

A

The degree to which a relativ of a schizophrenic patient displays holy critical or overinvolved attitudes toward the patient. Higher EE can lead to higher rates of relapse

78
Q

What are the symptoms of antisocial personality disorder and what is its etiology?

A

Impulsive, manipulative, and aggressive behaviour, maladaptive behaviour that reflects failure to accept social norms.

Etiology- genetic vulnerability, autonomic reactivity, inadequate socialization

79
Q

What is The insanity defence?

A

A legal term applied to People who cannot be held accountable for their behaviour because they have a mental illness. Used less frequently than most people would think

80
Q

What is anorexia nervosa characterized by?

A

Intense fear of gaining weight, disturbed body image, and dangerous measures to lose weight

81
Q

What are the chief characteristics of bulimia nervosa?

A

Out of control over eating followed by unhealthy compensatory efforts, such as vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise

82
Q

Does Thomas Szasz believe that mental illness is defined by behaviour ip that deviates from social norms?

A

Yes

83
Q

What are conversion reactions characterized by?

A

Rapid onset and rapid disappearance
La belle difference: they seem indifferent to the
symptoms

84
Q

True or false, conversion reactions are somatoform disorders?

A

True

85
Q

True or false, DID personalities typically take an Id, ego, and super ego form

A

True

86
Q

What is iatrogenesis?

A

Physician and treatment caused problems

87
Q

What are the reasons that someone may develop DID?

A

has roots in abuse, to not be there in abuse

88
Q

What did Hippocrates say about depression?

A

Is melancholia, you need to study the person

89
Q

What did Plato say about depression? (Hint: we use this today)

A

Study disease process. The disease is a pathological condition. Illness is a response to a pathological condition

90
Q

When the episodes of mood are extreme, they are…?

A

Affective or mood disorders

91
Q

Give 5 examples of environmental factors of depression

A 
Individualistic society
Erosion of faith 
Neurotoxin
Lost confidence in government 
Mobility (jobs making you move)
92
Q

What is reactive depression?

A

Depression that sparks from an event

93
Q

What is endogenous depression?

A

Occurs for no obvious reason

94
Q

What is clinical depression based on?

A

Frequency, intensity, and duration of symptoms are out of proportion to the situation

95
Q

Does someone who has depression have an internal or external locus of control in terms of success and negative outcomes?

A

Success is luck

Negative outcomes are personal factors

96
Q

Explain the learned helplessness theory

A

Depression occurs when people expect that something bad will happen and they think that they can’t do anything about them

97
Q

What is dissociative amnesia?

A

Sudden loss of personal information that is too extensive to be due to normal forgetting

98
Q

What is a dissociative disorder?

A

A class of disorders in which people lose contact with portions of their consciousness or memory, resulting in a loss off sense of identity

99
Q

Explain the attribution theory

A

If you’re depressed, you’ll blame negative effects to your failures. They’re permanent and won’t change
If you’re not depressed, you take into consideration the circumstances and you know it’s only temporary

99
Q

True or false, when someone has bipolar disorder, they have to return to normalcy before moving up or down in mood

A

True

99
Q

When is the risk of suicide most common?

A

When you have recovered from a depressive episode

99
Q

When can you most effectively intervene someones behaviour when they have bipolar disorder?

A

During normalcy

99
Q

What is the existential approach of Sc?

A

People that don’t behave as we do are labelled and we do what we want with them.. Madness is perspective.. Sc is a way for people to deal with their intolerable issues.

99
Q

Who believes that a diagnosing someone is a moral diagnosis?

A

Thomas Szasz

99
Q

What are be two types of Sc, and what one do drugs help with?

A

Positive type one, and negative type two

Drugs only help for type one, positive Sc

99
Q

Explain stress diathesis

A

Diathesis is the genetic part, if stress is present, then there’s a higher chance of developing a particular disorder like schizophrenia

99
Q

explain the double bind theory

A

No matter what you do, you cannot win.. Like a father going to take care of a baby showing no emotion

100
Q

What are the 5 Axis’ in the DSM-IV?

A

Axis 1– clinical syndromes
Axis 2– Personality disorders or mental retardation
Axis 3– General medical
Axis 4– Psychosocial and environmental problems
Axis 5– Global assessment of functioning (GAF)

101
Q

What are the ten subcategories in Axis one of the DSM-Iv?

A

1) childhood disorders
2) organic disorders (brain tissue, dementia)
3) Substance related
4) schizophrenia and other psychotic
5) mood
6) anxiety
7) somatoform
8) dissociative
9) sexual and gender identity disorders
10) eating disorders

Psychology 101 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions