Ch 07 Flashcards

1
Q

The process of making large molecules from smaller ones is called:

A) catabolism.
B) anabolism.
C) hydrolysis.
D) metabolism.

A

B) anabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The process of breaking down large molecules to release energy is called:

A) catabolism.
B) anabolism.
C) hydrolysis.
D) metabolism.

A

A) catabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The primary high-energy molecule in human metabolism is:

A) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD).
B) alcohol.
C) glucose.
D) adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

A

D) adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which cellular organelle is the primary site of ATP production?

A) ribosome
B) cytoplasm
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondrion

A

D) mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An anabolic reaction in which water is released as a by-product is called:

A) hydrolysis.
B) dehydration synthesis.
C) phosphorylation.
D) dephosphorylation.

A

B) dehydration synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Disaccharides are formed by what type of reaction?

A) dehydration synthesis
B) hydrolysis
C) hydrogen bonding
D) phosphorylation

A

A) dehydration synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Disaccharides are catabolized to monosaccharides through a ________ reaction.

A) dehydration synthesis
B) hydrolysis
C) phosphorylation
D) hydrogen bonding

A

B) hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following reactions represents dephosphorylation?

A) breakdown of ATP
B) synthesis of sucrose
C) breakdown of maltose
D) synthesis of glucose phosphate

A

A) breakdown of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In oxidation-reduction reactions, what is exchanged?

A) electrons
B) neutrons
C) protons
D) quarks

A

A) electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The final stage of glucose oxidation, which is carried out in the inner membranes of the mitochondria, involves which series of reactions?

A) oxidation-reduction
B) tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
C) electron transport chain
D) beta-oxidation

A

C) electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A molecule that gives up electrons is:

A) reduced.
B) condensed.
C) oxidized.
D) hydrolyzed.

A

C) oxidized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The oxidation-reduction reactions that produce energy require which of the following coenzymes?

A) vitamin C
B) B-vitamins
C) minerals
D) antioxidants

A

B) B-vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation metabolism ultimately yields:

A) carbon dioxide.
B) nitrogen and sucrose.
C) ATP and water.
D) glucose.

A

C) ATP and water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The first step of glycolysis is:

A) deamination of glucose.
B) dephosphorylation of glucose.
C) phosphorylation of glucose.
D) condensation of glucose to lactate.

A

C) phosphorylation of glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the end product after glucose undergoes glycolysis?

A) glucose-6-phosphate
B) pyruvate
C) glucagon
D) maltose

A

B) pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The glycolysis of glucose occurs in which cellular component?

A) mitochondrion
B) cytosol
C) nucleus
D) intercellular fluid

A

B) cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted to:

A) acetyl CoA.
B) phosphoenolpyruvate.
C) lactic acid.
D) citrate.

A

C) lactic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following cells rely on anaerobic metabolism for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production?

A) liver cells
B) epidermis
C) red blood cells
D) neurons

A

C) red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many ATP are produced in anaerobic glycolysis from one pyruvate molecule?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

A

A) 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When oxygen is plentiful, pyruvate from glucose is converted to:

A) acetyl CoA.
B) glycogen.
C) fatty acid.
D) lactic acid.

A

A) acetyl CoA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which molecule is common to the metabolism of carbohydrates, fatty acids, amino acids, and alcohol?

A) phosphofructokinase
B) hexokinase
C) carnitine
D) acetyl CoA

A

D) acetyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle is a continuous circle of how many metabolic reactions?

A) 4
B) 8
C) 11
D) 21

A

B) 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The reaction between acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate yields ____, the starting molecule in the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle.

A) pyruvate
B) citrate
C) ATP
D) carbon dioxide

A

B) citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The catabolism of triglycerides is called:

A) glycolysis.
B) TCA.
C) lipolysis.
D) lipogenesis.

A

C) lipolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following enzymes facilitates the release of fatty acids into the blood?

A) hormone-sensitive lipase
B) hexokinase
C) pepsin
D) peptidase

A

A) hormone-sensitive lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following metabolic pathways occurs in the cytosol of the cell?

A) glycolysis
B) TCA
C) electron transport chain
D) beta-oxidation

A

A) glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following situations will result in a buildup of ketones in the blood?

A) low carbohydrate availability
B) low levels of acetyl CoA due to increased fat mobilization
C) excess of tricarboxyl acid (TCA)-cycle intermediates
D) high-carbohydrate diet

A

A) low carbohydrate availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Glucose is stored in the body as:

A) triglyceride.
B) glycogen.
C) fatty acid.
D) gluconeogenesis.

A

B) glycogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The process of producing glucose from noncarbohydrate sources is called:

A) glycolysis.
B) gluconeogenesis.
C) glycogenolysis.
D) lipolysis.

A

B) gluconeogenesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The primary anabolic hormone is:

A) cortisol.
B) epinephrine.
C) glucagon.
D) insulin.

A

D) insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which hormone secreted by the pancreas triggers the catabolism of glycogen?

A) glucagon
B) epinephrine
C) testosterone
D) cortisol

A

A) glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which metabolic pathway will predominate after eating a balanced meal?

A) lipolysis
B) gluconeogenesis
C) oxidative glycolysis
D) deamination

A

C) oxidative glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fruity breath is a sign of:

A) lipolysis.
B) ketoacidosis.
C) lacticacidosis.
D) glycogenolysis.

A

B) ketoacidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Juan ate a healthy, well-balanced meal three hours ago and is resting comfortably on the couch. Which metabolic pathway is providing most of his ATP?

A) beta-oxidation
B) glycolysis
C) gluconeogenesis
D) lipogenesis

A

A) beta-oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The end products of deamination are ammonia and:

A) nitrogen.
B) carbon skeleton.
C) ATP.
D) carbon dioxide.

A

B) carbon skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The oxidation of alcohol occurs primarily in the:

A) pancreas.
B) stomach.
C) bloodstream.
D) liver.

A

D) liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

For a person who chronically abuses alcohol, which pathway becomes important in metabolizing large amounts of alcohol?

A) microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS)
B) first pass
C) alcohol dehydrogenase
D) aldehyde dehydrogenase

A

A) microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In the first step of alcohol oxidation, the action of alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) converts ethanol into:

A) methanol.
B) pyruvate.
C) acetaldehyde.
D) acetyl CoA.

A

C) acetaldehyde.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) can be synthesized from adenosine monophosphate (AMP) and adenosine diphosphate (ADP) through the process of:

A) phosphorylation.
B) dephosphorylation.
C) hydrolysis.
D) deamination.

A

A) phosphorylation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The primary energy molecule for human metabolism is:

A) glucagon.
B) adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
C) adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
D) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD).

A

B) adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the name of the molecule that results from the removal of two phosphates from ATP?

A) adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
B) adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
C) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
D) flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)

A

B) adenosine monophosphate (AMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the three end products of the oxidation-reduction reactions involved in metabolism?

A) glucose, pyruvate, and adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
B) sucrose, lactate, and adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
C) acetyl CoA, nitrogen, and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
D) water, carbon dioxide, and ATP

A

D) water, carbon dioxide, and ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The removal of a phosphate is called:

A) dephosphorylation.
B) deamination.
C) hydrolysis.
D) oxidation-reduction.

A

A) dephosphorylation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A cofactor that contains carbon is known as a:

A) carbohydrate.
B) lipid.
C) coenzyme.
D) carnitine.

A

C) coenzyme.

45
Q

Which of the following activates the phosphorylation of glucose?

A) glucokinase
B) glucagon
C) pyruvate
D) ammonia

A

A) glucokinase

46
Q

Which of the following binds the different parts of an enzyme together to speed up a metabolic reaction?

A) calorimeter
B) lactate
C) ketone
D) cofactor

A

D) cofactor

47
Q

What is the first step in the body’s metabolism of alcohol?

A) Acetate is converted to acetyl CoA.
B) Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) produces acetaldehyde.
C) Aldehyde dehydrogenase produces acetate.
D) P450 enzymes produce acetyl CoA.

A

B) Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) produces acetaldehyde.

48
Q

Petra is an endurance athlete who has just completed the Boston Marathon. Which of the following foods would BEST help her replenish her glycogen stores?

A) fried chicken
B) whole-milk mozzarella
C) sirloin steak
D) spaghetti

A

D) spaghetti

49
Q

When we eat more Calories than we need, the body responds by using:

A) fat for energy and carbohydrates for storage as glycogen.
B) protein for energy and carbohydrates converted to body fat.
C) carbohydrates for energy and dietary fats stored as body fat.
D) ketones for energy and proteins converted to body fat.

A

C) carbohydrates for energy and dietary fats stored as body fat.

50
Q

As we sleep, the body maintains blood glucose levels by synthesizing glucose through:

A) gluconeogenesis.
B) lipolysis.
C) proteolysis.
D) hydrolysis.

A

A) gluconeogenesis.

51
Q

Carbohydrates, ketogenic amino acids, and alcohol can be converted to body fat through the process of:

A) proteolysis.
B) lipogenesis.
C) lipolysis.
D) liposuction.

A

B) lipogenesis.

52
Q

Which process plays a critical role in the synthesis of nonessential amino acids?

A) gluconeogenesis
B) transamination
C) ketosis
D) lipogenesis

A

B) transamination

53
Q

In response to a drop in blood glucose, the concentration of the hormone ___ increases to stimulate the release of glucose from glycogen.

A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) epinephrine
D) cortisol

A

B) glucagon

54
Q

During exercise, which hormone stimulates the breakdown of stored energy?

A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) epinephrine
D) estrogen

A

C) epinephrine

55
Q

Elevated levels of the hormone ___, coupled with a sedentary lifestyle, have been linked to an increased risk of excess belly fat and glucose intolerance.

A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) epinephrine
D) cortisol

A

D) cortisol

56
Q

For people with type 2 diabetes, the hormone insulin triggers:

A) glycogen, triglyceride, and protein anabolism.
B) protein catabolism.
C) essential fatty acid catabolism.
D) glucose catabolism.

A

B) protein catabolism.

57
Q

After a meal has been consumed and its nutrients absorbed, what are the primary metabolic processes occurring in the body?

A) anabolic
B) catabolic
C) gluconeogenic
D) ketonic

A

A) anabolic

58
Q

Evan is a well-nourished adult who weighs 70 kg (about 154 lbs.). How much energy reserve would his body typically store in the form of glycogen?

A) 15 kg
B) 2 kg
C) .2 kg
D) .002 kg

A

C) .2 kg

59
Q

In order to be used to produce energy for the body, protein—unlike carbohydrates and lipids—must first be stripped of:

A) carbon.
B) nitrogen.
C) hydrogen.
D) oxygen.

A

B) nitrogen.

60
Q

Catabolism results in a release of chemical energy.

A

True

61
Q

The process of making larger molecules from smaller ones is called anabolism.

A

True

62
Q

Glycolysis requires oxygen.

A

False

63
Q

A majority of the body’s ATP is produced in the mitochondrion.

A

True

64
Q

The hydrolysis of sucrose produces two molecules of glucose.

A

False

65
Q

In anaerobic metabolism lactate is converted to glucose.

A

False

66
Q

In the presence of oxygen pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA.

A

True

67
Q

Fatty acids can be converted to glucose.

A

False

68
Q

A ketone body can be converted to glucose via gluconeogenesis.

A

False

69
Q

Amino acids produce more ATP than glucose or fatty acid can generate.

A

False

70
Q

Glycogen stores are the body’s most abundant energy source.

A

False

71
Q

Oxaloacetate is a metabolic intermediate in the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle.

A

True

72
Q

Amino acids are stored in the body for energy.

A

False

73
Q

Two of the B-vitamins are essential to the oxidation-reduction reactions involved in metabolism.

A

True

74
Q

Muscle glycogen is used to raise blood glucose.

A

False

75
Q

Amino acids are a primary source of ATP.

A

False

76
Q

Drinking black coffee speeds up alcohol metabolism.

A

False

77
Q

The microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS) is used to metabolize large amounts of alcohol.

A

True

78
Q

Alcohol can be converted to glucose.

A

False

79
Q

The body can store an unlimited amount of excess glucose in the form of glycogen.

A

False

80
Q

Which of the following are classified as micronutrients?

A) vitamins
B) water
C) fat
D) protein

A

A) vitamins

81
Q

In the early 1900s, Japanese children who did not consume fish developed a form of blindness. Which vitamin were they deficient in?

A) vitamin A
B) vitamin D
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin E

A

A) vitamin A

82
Q

In 1906, F.G. Hopkins first called vitamins and minerals:

A) essential substances.
B) essential factors.
C) nutrients.
D) accessory factors.

A

D) accessory factors.

83
Q

A deficiency in which vitamin causes the disease beriberi?

A) niacin
B) thiamin
C) cobalamin
D) ascorbic acid

A

B) thiamin

84
Q

The most common cause of vitamin toxicity is from:

A) overconsumption of nutritional supplements.
B) overconsumption of carrots.
C) overapplication of vitamin A cream for acne.
D) overconsumption of cod liver oil.

A

A) overconsumption of nutritional supplements.

85
Q

How many water-soluble vitamins are essential for human health?

A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9

A

D) 9

86
Q

Which water-soluble vitamin can be stored by the body?

A) vitamin C
B) thiamin
C) riboflavin
D) vitamin B12

A

D) vitamin B12

87
Q

Which vitamin was discovered first?

A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B12
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin K

A

A) vitamin A

88
Q

Which vitamin is categorized as a member of the K-vitamin “umbrella”?

A) potassium
B) phylloquinone
C) cholecalciferol
D) retinol

A

B) phylloquinone

89
Q

You are reading a label and the ingredients list includes pyridoxine as an additive. Which vitamin has been added to this food?

A) vitamin A
B) vitamin C
C) vitamin B6
D) vitamin B12

A

C) vitamin B6

90
Q

One of the primary differences between vitamins and minerals is that:

A) minerals are essential and vitamins are not.
B) minerals are inorganic and vitamins are organic.
C) minerals are large molecules and vitamins are small molecules.
D) minerals are organic and vitamins are inorganic.

A

B) minerals are inorganic and vitamins are organic.

91
Q

Which of the following is classified as a major mineral?

A) zinc
B) iodine
C) selenium
D) sulfur

A

D) sulfur

92
Q

Which of the following is classified as a trace mineral?

A) calcium
B) sodium
C) iron
D) potassium

A

C) iron

93
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about iron?

A) Iron is a major mineral.
B) Iron is an organic molecule.
C) Heme iron is more easily absorbed.
D) Non-heme iron is more easily absorbed.

A

C) Heme iron is more easily absorbed.

94
Q

Which of the following decreases the absorption of zinc and iron?

A) oxalic acid
B) vitamin C
C) lactose
D) dietary fat

A

A) oxalic acid

95
Q

Vitamin supplements may be harmful. Which supplement, when taken in high doses, has been associated with increased risk of osteoporosis and bone fractures in older adults?

A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B3
C) vitamin B12
D) vitamin D

A

A) vitamin A

96
Q

Which of the following minerals is linked with type 2 diabetes?

A) iron
B) magnesium
C) zinc
D) chromium

A

D) chromium

97
Q

Genetics plays a role in determining the actual required intake of vitamins and minerals. What term is used to denote the science that blends the study of human nutrition with genetics?

A) nutrigenetics
B) genetic-nutrition
C) nutrigenomics
D) genetically modified foods

A

C) nutrigenomics

98
Q

What chemical changes does the body make to thiamin and B6 so that the vitamins can carry out their essential roles?

A) Two hydroxyl groups are added to the vitamins.
B) Two hydroxyl groups are removed from the vitamins.
C) A phosphate group is added to the vitamins.
D) A phosphate group is removed from the vitamins.

A

C) A phosphate group is added to the vitamins.

99
Q

Your friend is trying to decide if her diet provides adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals and whether she needs to take supplements. Which guideline below would best help her make a sound decision?

A) Eat the nutrient, not the food.
B) Eat food: not too much, mostly plants.
C) Eat refined, enriched foods to provide state-of-the-art nutrition.
D) Eat high on the food chain.

A

B) Eat food: not too much, mostly plants.

100
Q

In general, the fat-soluble vitamins are stored in adipose tissue.

A

True

101
Q

Vitamins A and D are the most toxic fat-soluble vitamins.

A

True

102
Q

Menaquinone is a form of vitamin B.

A

False

103
Q

Minerals are inorganic.

A

True

104
Q

We need to consume more than 100 mg of trace minerals per day.

A

False

105
Q

The human body absorbs 100% of the minerals that enter our digestive tract.

A

False

106
Q

Non-heme iron is better absorbed if combined with a vitamin C-containing food.

A

True

107
Q

Vitamin D must be activated before the body cells can use it.

A

True

108
Q

The calcium found in the supplement form calcium citrate-malate is not absorbed as well as the calcium found in dairy sources.

A

False