Ch 04 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following carbohydrates is the end product of photosynthesis?

A) galactose
B) glycogen
C) glucose
D) lactose

A

C) glucose

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2
Q

The absorption of which monosaccharide does NOT require energy?

A) fructose
B) maltose
C) galactose
D) glucose

A

A) fructose

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3
Q

One class of enzymes that breaks down carbohydrates is:

A) carbohydrase.
B) pepsidase.
C) amylase.
D) lipase.

A

C) amylase.

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4
Q

Eating excess amounts of sugar can increase a person’s risk for heart disease.

True
False

A

True

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5
Q

Sarah’s doctor wants to screen her for reactive hypoglycemia. If her doctor’s suspicions are correct and Sarah does have reactive hypoglycemia, what would you expect her blood glucose concentration to be at approximately TWO HOURS after she had begun her glucose tolerance test?

A) normal: two hours after consuming the glucose load, her blood concentrations will be no different from those of a healthy individual.
B) depressed as compared to a healthy individual
C) slightly elevated as compared to a healthy individual
D) highly elevated as compared to a healthy individual

A

B) depressed as compared to a healthy individual

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6
Q

T/F

Whole grains are carbohydrates that include the kernels’ bran, endosperm, and germ but not the husk.

A

True

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7
Q

T/F

Lactose intolerance is more common among African Americans than among Caucasian Americans.

A

True

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8
Q

T/F

Diabetics who drink alcoholic beverages can experience a dangerous drop in blood glucose.

A

True

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9
Q

Trevor’s doctor wants to screen him for type 1 diabetes by administering a glucose tolerance test. If his doctor’s suspicions are correct and Trevor does have type 1 diabetes, what would you expect his blood glucose concentration to be at approximately TWO HOURS after the test?

A) elevated as compared to a healthy individual
B) depressed as compared to a healthy individual
C) normal: two hours after consuming the glucose load, his blood concentrations will be no different from those of a healthy individual.
D) extremely depressed as compared to a healthy individual

A

A) elevated as compared to a healthy individual

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10
Q

The type of carbohydrates that consist of only a single molecule are called:

A) fatty acids.
B) amino acids.
C) monosaccharides.
D) Calories.

A

C) monosaccharides.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a five-carbon monosaccharide?

A) ribose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) glucose

A

A) ribose

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12
Q

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A) sucrose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) glucose

A

A) sucrose

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13
Q

When fructose and glucose are bonded together, they form:

A) sucrose.
B) maltose.
C) lactose.
D) fructose.

A

A) sucrose.

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14
Q

Which of the following has the most Calories in one tablespoon?

A) sucrose
B) honey
C) molasses
D) milk

A

B) honey

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15
Q

The term complex carbohydrates refers to:

A) monosaccharides.
B) disaccharides.
C) oligosaccharides and polysaccharides.
D) glucose.

A

C) oligosaccharides and polysaccharides.

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16
Q

Which of the following is classified as an oligosaccharide?

A) ribose
B) starch
C) raffinose
D) maltose

A

C) raffinose

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17
Q

In the body, the major storage sites for glycogen are the:

A) muscles and liver.
B) kidney and muscles.
C) liver and kidney.
D) liver and pancreas.

A

A) muscles and liver.

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18
Q

Which of the following is an example of an insoluble fiber?

A) mucilages
B) pectins
C) lignins
D) gums

A

C) lignins

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19
Q

Which of the following fiber types includes fibers that can be classified as both soluble and insoluble?

A) hemicelluloses
B) cellulose
C) lignins
D) pectins

A

A) hemicelluloses

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20
Q

Which of the following enzymes is found in the mouth?

A) lactase
B) maltase
C) pancreatic amylase
D) salivary amylase

A

D) salivary amylase

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21
Q

Why does carbohydrate digestion NOT occur in the stomach?

A) Pancreatic amylase absorbs all carbohydrates through endocytosis.
B) The stomach lining absorbs all carbohydrates.
C) All carbohydrates are broken down in the mouth before they reach the stomach.
D) Acid in the stomach inactivates salivary amylase.

A

D) Acid in the stomach inactivates salivary amylase.

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22
Q

The absorption of which monosaccharide does NOT require energy?

A) fructose
B) maltose
C) galactose
D) glucose

A

A) fructose

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23
Q

Which of the following is a technique employed by some endurance athletes to increase their storage of muscle glycogen?

A) ketosis
B) carbohydrate loading
C) glycogen surging
D) gluconeogenesis

A

B) carbohydrate loading

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24
Q

Gluconeogenesis is:

A) the synthesis of new glucose from amino acids or other sources that are not carbohydrates.
B) the release of stored glycogen from the liver.
C) the process by which plants use sunlight to synthesize glucose.
D) the uptake of glucose by the body’s cells.

A

A) the synthesis of new glucose from amino acids or other sources that are not carbohydrates.

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25
Q

Why are most types of fiber indigestible in the human GI tract?

A) The molecular structure of fiber is too highly coiled to be broken down.
B) Fiber is too viscous to be digested by bacteria in the colon.
C) Alpha bonds present in fiber are difficult for the body to break down.
D) Beta bonds present in fiber are difficult for the body to break down.

A

D) Beta bonds present in fiber are difficult for the body to break down.

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26
Q

After a meal, which hormone is responsible for moving glucose into the body’s cells?

A) glucagon
B) estrogen
C) CCK
D) insulin

A

D) insulin

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27
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the glycemic index?

A) an individual’s glucose/insulin ratio in a fasted state
B) the amount of insulin required to metabolize 100 grams of glucose
C) the glucose content of a given food
D) the extent to which a given food raises blood glucose and insulin levels

A

D) the extent to which a given food raises blood glucose and insulin levels

28
Q

The glycemic load is:

A) the amount of carbohydrate required to reverse hypoglycemia.
B) the glycemic index multiplied by the saturated fatty acids.
C) the glycemic index multiplied by the grams of carbohydrate.
D) equivalent to the glycemic index.

A

C) the glycemic index multiplied by the grams of carbohydrate.

29
Q

In the absence of carbohydrate, ________ are produced from the incomplete breakdown of body fat.

A) amyloses
B) amylases
C) ketones
D) bacteria

A

C) ketones

30
Q

Which of the following diets is associated with the development of ketosis?

A) one that contains too much fat
B) one that contains insufficient fat
C) one that contains too much carbohydrate
D) one that contains insufficient carbohydrate

A

D) one that contains insufficient carbohydrate

31
Q

A potentially life-threatening consequence of low-carbohydrate intake is:

A) cancer.
B) ketoacidosis.
C) glycogenesis.
D) lipogenesis.

A

B) ketoacidosis.

32
Q

Which of the following might a doctor recommend to reduce a patient’s risk for diverticulosis?

A) Consume more white bread and other refined foods.
B) Consume a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
C) Eliminate non-digestible dietary fiber.
D) Consume more dietary fiber.

A

D) Consume more dietary fiber.

33
Q

How many grams of carbohydrate (per day) are recommended to prevent ketosis in healthy individuals (RDA)?

A) 75 grams
B) 100 grams
C) 130 grams
D) 160 grams

A

C) 130 grams

34
Q

Which of the following is MOST associated with diets high in added sugars?

A) hyperactivity
B) tooth decay
C) diabetes
D) memory loss

A

B) tooth decay

35
Q

Which of the following is a non-nutritive sweetener?

A) sucrose
B) aspartame
C) sorbitol
D) fructose

A

B) aspartame

36
Q

The MOST common source of added sugar in the U.S. diet is:

A) fruits.
B) soft drinks/sodas.
C) chocolate bars.
D) alcoholic beverages.

A

B) soft drinks/sodas.

37
Q

The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber is:

A) 25 g per day for men.
B) more than 50 g for men and women.
C) 14 g/1000 kcal per day.
D) 45 g per day for men and women.

A

C) 14 g/1000 kcal per day.

38
Q

Sugar alcohols are most often used in which of the following products?

A) diet sodas
B) baked confections
C) chewing gum
D) infant formulas

A

C) chewing gum

39
Q

Which artificial sweetener was once linked to cancer but later removed from the list of potential cancer-causing substances?

A) saccharin
B) sucralose
C) aspartame
D) acesulfame-K

A

A) saccharin

40
Q

Which of the following is a sugar alcohol?

A) xylitol
B) saccharin
C) high fructose corn syrup
D) glycogen

A

A) xylitol

41
Q

Individuals with the disease phenylketonuria (PKU) should not consume the artificial sweetener aspartame. Why?

A) They are highly prone to development of diabetes.
B) They are allergic to the sweetener.
C) They experience severe headaches when they consume aspartame.
D) They cannot metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine.

A

D) They cannot metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine.

42
Q

Which of the following is the most prevalent form of diabetes?

A) type 1
B) type 2
C) gestational
D) pediatric

A

B) type 2

43
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes?

A) arises most commonly during adulthood
B) insulin resistance or insensitivity
C) often associated with obesity
D) the least common form of diabetes

A

D) the least common form of diabetes

44
Q

In type 1 diabetes, the ________ are destroyed by an autoimmune disease.

A) hepatocytes of the liver
B) beta cells of the pancreas
C) neurotransmitters of the brain
D) glomerulus cells of the kidney

A

B) beta cells of the pancreas

45
Q

Which of the following is a state in which the body produces too much insulin even before a meal has been consumed?

A) reactive hypoglycemia
B) type 1 diabetes
C) fasting hypoglycemia
D) gestational diabetes

A

C) fasting hypoglycemia

46
Q

Up to ________ of the world’s adult population suffers from lactose intolerance.

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 70%

A

D) 70%

47
Q

Yogurt is tolerated better than milk by many lactose-intolerant people because:

A) yogurt has no lactose.
B) bacteria in yogurt help digest the lactose.
C) it has a thicker consistency.
D) yogurt is acidic.

A

B) bacteria in yogurt help digest the lactose.

48
Q

Red blood cells and the brain rely on ________ for energy.

A) glucose
B) glucagon
C) protein
D) fat

A

A) glucose

49
Q

Hector, who has type 2 diabetes, is looking through the pantry for a snack. Using the glycemic index as a guide, identify which of the following is the BEST choice to help Hector maintain a more stable glucose level. (Glycemic index values are listed in parentheses.)

A) Rice Krispies 82
B) jelly beans 78
C) white rice 56
D) kidney beans 28

A

D) kidney beans 28

50
Q

What is the KEY difference between soluble fiber and insoluble fiber?

A) Soluble fiber can be ingested: insoluble fiber cannot.
B) Soluble fiber is only found in fruits: insoluble fiber in vegetables.
C) Soluble fibers can be digested by bacteria in the colon: insoluble fiber cannot.
D) Soluble fibers can be used as food thickeners: insoluble fiber cannot.

A

C) Soluble fibers can be digested by bacteria in the colon: insoluble fiber cannot.

51
Q

Simple carbohydrates differ from complex carbohydrates by virtue of:

A) the type of bonds joining them.
B) the number of molecules they are made up of.
C) their digestability.
D) the type of atoms they are composed of.

A

B) the number of molecules they are made up of.

52
Q

A person who has been diagnosed with impaired fasting glucose:

A) has type 1 diabetes.
B) has type 2 diabetes.
C) is considered pre-diabetic.
D) has very low levels of insulin.

A

C) is considered pre-diabetic.

53
Q

Plants store glucose in the form of the complex carbohydrate:

A) starch.
B) glycogen.
C) glucagon.
D) lipids.

A

A) starch.

54
Q

You are scanning the range of choices in the bread aisle at the grocery store. Which phrase on the package label indicates that the bread likely contains a high amount of fiber-rich carbohydrates?

A) refined
B) enriched
C) stone ground
D) whole wheat

A

D) whole wheat

55
Q

Bran is the part of a grain kernel that is very high in:

A) protein.
B) healthful fats.
C) fiber.
D) water.

A

C) fiber.

56
Q

Why is white wheat flour a less nutritious choice than whole wheat flour?

A) White wheat flour retains only a fraction of wheat’s fiber, vitamins, and minerals.
B) White wheat flour contains less endosperm than whole wheat flour.
C) White wheat flour consists only of wheat germ.
D) White wheat flour consists only of wheat bran.

A

A) White wheat flour retains only a fraction of wheat’s fiber, vitamins, and minerals.

57
Q

A disorder of the large intestine characterized by infected and inflamed pockets forming in the intestinal wall is:

A) metabolic disorder.
B) lactose intolerance.
C) diverticulosis.
D) colon cancer.

A

C) diverticulosis.

58
Q

A person with reactive hypoglycemia can control the condition by:

A) eliminating dairy products from his or her diet.
B) switching to alternative sweeteners.
C) administration of insulin by injection or pump.
D) eating smaller, more frequent meals.

A

D) eating smaller, more frequent meals.

59
Q

The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) suggests that carbohydrates can make up as much as ___ of total daily Calories to decrease a person’s risk of chronic disease.

A) 65%
B) 70%
C) 75%
D) 80%

A

A) 65%

60
Q

T/F

Functional fiber is the form of fiber found in fiber supplements.

A

True

61
Q

T/F

Carbohydrates are chemically digested in the stomach.

A

False

62
Q

T/F

The absorption of fructose takes longer than the other monosaccharides.

A

True

63
Q

T/F

Overconsumption of simple sugars causes hyperactivity and behavioral problems in children.

A

False

64
Q

T/F

The alpha bond that produces sucrose cannot be broken by digestive enzymes.

A

False

65
Q

T/F

The beta bond that produces lactose is difficult for the human body to break down.

A

True

66
Q

T/F

Unlike the Institute for Medicine suggestions, the Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend general, rather than specific, nutrition tips.

A

True