CEMENT THREE Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

2

SURFACE WATER LANDOWNERS - NATURAL FLOW THEORY - SURFACE LANDOWNERS ARE LIABLE WHERE THEY

A
  1. UNREASONABLY ALTER NATURAL DRAINAGE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2

IN ORDER TO JUSTIFY A CONDITION ON A BUILDING PERMIT, THERE MUST BE A

A
  1. NEXUS BETWEEN LEGITIMATE STATE INTEREST AND CONDITION IMPOSED.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2

WHERE A NEXUS IS FOUND BETWEEN CONDITION ON BUILDING PERMIT AND LEGITIMATE STATE INTEREST, THERE MUST ALSO BE

A
  1. ROUGH PROPORTIONALITY BETWEEN REQUIRED DEDICTATION AND
  2. IMPACT ON COMMUNITY.
  3. CITY BEARS BURDEN OF MEETING THIS HIGHER TEST.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2

SURFACE WATER - COMMON ENEMY THEORY - THE LANDOWNER MAY DO

A
  1. ANYTHING TO CHANGE DRAINAGE/COMBAT FLOW
  2. AS LONG AS IT DOESN’T CAUSE UNNECESSARY DAMAGE TO OTHER’S LAND
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3

THREE COMPETING THEORIES OF SURFACE WATER LANDOWNERSHIP ARE

A
  1. NATURAL FLOW VS.
  2. COMMON ENEMY VS.
  3. REASONABLE USE THEORY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2

EASEMENT BY RESERVATION IS CREATED WHERE

A
  1. GRANTOR CONVEYS TITLE TO LAND
  2. RESERVES RIGHT TO CONTINUE USING LAND FOR STATED PURPOSE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2

STATUTE OF FRAUDS - WHERE A CONTRACT IS BETWEEN MERCHANTS, AND A RECEIVING MERCHANT FAILED TO OBJECT TO A CONFIRMATION MEMO WITH A TRANSCRIPTION ERROR REGARDING THE QUANTITY OF GOODS WITHIN 10 DAYS

A
  1. THE MISTAKE IS BINDING.
  2. (CONSIDER EQUITY DEFENSES.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2

FOR NOTICE STATUTES, FOR THE BFP WHO TAKES WITHOUT NOTICE, MAKE SURE SHES IS TAKING WITHOUT NOTICE OF A

A

PRIOR, UNRECORDED, INTEREST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2

SELLER’S AGENT MAY STILL EARN COMMISSION WHERE THE SALE FAILS TO CLOSE DUE TO

A
  1. SELLER’S FAULT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1

BUYER’S AGENT IS TECHINICALLY A SUBAGENT OF THE

A
  1. SELLER’S AGENT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2

LANDLORDS AND NO SELF HELP - LANDLORD MAY NOT

A
  1. FOREFULLY REMOVE TENANT’S PROPERTY
  2. CHANGE LOCKS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2

WHERE TENANT DOES NOT PAY RENT AND CONTINUES TO MAINTAIN POSSESSION, LANDLORD MAY

A
  1. FILE FOR NOTICE OF EVICTION
  2. SUE FOR RENT DUE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1

WHERE TENANT REMOVES FIXTURES, HE COMMITS

A
  1. WASTE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1

WHERE AN ILLEGALITY BY A TENANT IS MINOR, IT MAY NOT

A
  1. CONSTITUTE A BREACH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1

HOLDOVER TENANT - WHERE A LANDLORD ELECTS TO IMPOSE A NEW PERIODIC TENANCY ON A HOLDOVER TENANT, HE CAN DEMAND HIGHER RENT WHERE

A
  1. HE GAVE NOTICE OF THE INCREASE BEFORE THE LEASE EXPIRED.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1

COMMERCIAL LEASE - IF A HOLDOVER TENANT IS A COMMERCIAL TENANT, HE CAN IMPOSE A YEAR TO YEAR PERIODIC TENANCY WHERE THE ORIGINAL LEASE WAS

A
  1. OVER A YEAR LONG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5

A TENANCY AT WILL WILL TERMINATE BY OPERATION OF LAW WHERE

A
  1. DEATH OF EITHER PARTY
  2. WASTE BY THE TENANT
  3. ASSIGNMENT BY THE TENANT
  4. TRANSFER OF THE TITLE BY THE LANDLORD
  5. LEASE BY THE LANDLORD TO A THIRD PARTY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2

A TENANCY AT WILL MUST BE CREATED BY

A
  1. EXPRESS AGREEMENT
  2. (IF NO EXPRESS AGREEMENT, THE COURTS WILL TREAT THE LEASE AS AN IMPLIED PERIODIC TENANCY)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1

WHILE A TENANCY AT WILL CAN BE TERMINATED BY EITHER PARTY, THIS IS USUALLY REQUIRED

A
  1. A REASONABLE NOTICE TO VACATE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1

TERMINATION OF PERIODIC TENANCY REQUIRES THAT THE TERMINATION MUST BE AT THE

A
  1. END OF THE PERIOD OF THE TENANCY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

4

FOUR MEANS OF CREATING PERIODIC TENANCY

A
  1. EXPRESS AGREEMENT
  2. IMPLICATION (RENT IS PAID AT SET INTERVALS)
  3. INVALID LEASE BUT LANDLORD ACCEPTS PAYMENT*
  4. HOLDOVER TENANT BUT LANDLORD ACCEPTS PAYMENT*

PERIOD OF TENANCY IS FOR AMOUNT OF TIME PAYMENT COVERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3

TENANCY BY THE ENTIRETY - RIGHT OF PARTITION

A
  1. ONE SPOUSE CANNOT CONVEY HER PORTION
  2. ANY ATTEMPT TO DO SO IS INVALID
  3. NO DESTRUCTION OF TENANCY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1

TO REACH A TENANCY BY THE ENTIRETY, THE CREDITORS MUST BE

A

CREDITORS OF THE COUPLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1

WASTE - A CO-TENANT CAN BRING AN ACTION AGAINST ANOTHER CO-TENANT FOR

A
  1. WASTE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2

WATCH OUT RAP QUESTIONS THAT INVOLVE A WOMAN AND HER CHILDREN, BECAUSE THE ASSUMPTION IS A WOMAN CAN HAVE CHILDREN

A
  1. UNTIL SHE DIES
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1

SPRINGING EXECUTORY CUTS SHORT THE

A
  1. GRANTOR’S INTEREST
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1

GRANTING AN INTEREST IN REAL PROPERTY THAT TERMINATES IN FIVE YEARS, AND SHIFTS THE OWNERSHIP TO A THIRD PARTY IS A

A
  1. FEE SUBJECT TO EXECUTORY INTEREST
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3

AMMORTIZATION AND NON-CONFORMING USE - USE OF AMMORTIZATION TO SATISFY TAKINGS CLAUSE

A
  1. NONCONFORMING USE’S IMMEDIATE VALUE IS AMMORTIZED OVER THE COURSE OF A SET PERIOD
  2. ONCE THE VALUE OF THE NON-CONFORMING USE REACHES ZERO
  3. THE NONCONFORMING USE ENDS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

2

SURFACE WATER - REASONABLE USE THEORY

A
  1. UTILITY OF USE IS BALANCED AGAINST
  2. HARM CAUSED BY THE USE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

2

MORTAGEE CAN TAKE POSSESSION OF LAND WHERE MORTGAGOR

A
  1. CONSENTS
  2. ABANDONS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

2

A HOLDER IN DUE COURSE MUST TAKE THE NOTE IN GOOD FAITH AND PAY

A
  1. VALUE OF PROPERTY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2

HOLDER IN DUE COURSE IS SUBJECT TO DEFENSES THAT MAKE THE CONTRACT

A
  1. VOID
  2. (NOT VOIDABLE DEFENSES)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

1

BFP’S FOR VALUE INCLUDE

A
  1. MORTGAGEES FOR VALUE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

1

WHERE BUYER INTENDS TO SUE FOR BREACH, AND NOTIFIES SELLER OF INTENT TO SUE FOR BREACH BEFORE CLOSING, THE CONTRACT WILL NOT

A
  1. MERGE INTO THE DEED
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

1

TACKING FOR ADVERSE POSSESSION IS SATISFIED WHERE

A
  1. ONE ADVERSE CLAIMANT OUSTS THE PRECEEDING CLAIMANT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

1

FUTURE INTERESTS AND ADVERSE POSSESSION - THE SOL DOES NOT BEGIN TO RUN UNTIL

A
  1. THE INTEREST BECOMES POSSESSORY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

1

FOR ADVERSE POSSESSION, WHERE A TENANT REMAINS, IT WILL LIKELY NOT BE CONSIDERED ADVERSE BUT TENANT WILL BE CONSIDERED A

A
  1. HOLDOVER TENANT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

1

NEGATIVE EASEMENTS MAY ONLY BE CREATED THROUGH

A
  1. EXPRESS GRANT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

4

CATEGORIES OF ACTS THAT MAY BE PREVENTED THROUGH EASEMENT

A
  1. LIGHT
  2. AIR
  3. SUPPORT
  4. STREAM OF WATER
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

1

IF BOTH SERVIENT AND DOMINANT PARCEL HOLDER USE AN EASEMENT, THE REPAIR COSTS ARE

A
  1. APPORTIONED
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

1

AN EASEMENT BY RESERVATION IS VOID WHERE IT RESERVES THE USE

A
  1. FOR THE BENEFIT OF ANOTHER
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

1

AN EASEMENT CREATED BY NECESSITY WILL TERMINATE WHEN

A
  1. THE NECESSITY ENDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

1

WHERE THERE IS A BREACH IN THE IMPLIED WARRANTY OF HABITIBAILITY AND THE TENANT DECIDES TO REDUCE OR WITHHOLD RENT, THE TENANT MUST

A
  1. PLACE THE RENT IN ESCROW
44
Q

3

A LIFE TENANT CAN EXPLOIT PROPERTY’S RESOURCES WHERE

A
  1. NECESSARY FOR REPAIRS OR MAINTENANCE OF LAND
  2. GRANT EXPRESSLY GIVES THE RIGHT TO EXPLOIT
  3. LAND WAS USED FOR EXPLOITATION PRIOR TO GRANT (OPEN MINES DOCTRINE)
45
Q

4

TENANTS REMEDIES FOR LANDLORD’S BREACH OF IMPLIED WARRANTY OF HABITABILITY

A
  1. MOVE (VACATE AND TERMINATE LEASE)
  2. REPAIR (DEDUCT EXPENSES FROM FUTURE RENT)
  3. REDUCE OR WITHHOLD RENT
  4. REMAIN (AND SEEK MONEY DAMAGES)
46
Q

3

EASEMENT IS CREATED BY IMPLICATION WHERE

A
  1. PREEXISTING APPARENT AND CONTINUOUS USE OF A SINGLE TRACT
  2. SINGLE TRACT IS DIVIDED
  3. EASEMENT REASONABLY NECESSARY TO DOMINANT TRACT’S USE AND ENJOYMENT OF PROPERTY
47
Q

2

EASEMENT MAY BE IMPLIED WITHOUT PRIOR USE WHERE THERE IS A

A
  1. SUBDIVISION PLAT
  2. PROFIT A PRENDRE
48
Q

1

JUSTICIABILITY MEANS A

A
  1. CASE OR CONTROVERSY EXISTS
49
Q

4

FOR A CASE TO BE JUSTICIABLE, IT MUST SATISFY THE REQUIREMENTS FOR

A
  1. STANDING
  2. RIPENESS
  3. MOOTNESS
  4. POLITICAL QUESTION DOCTRINE
50
Q

3

TO HAVE STANDING A PARTY MUST HAVE

A
  1. AN INJURY
  2. CAUSATION
  3. REDRESSABILITY
51
Q

3

METHODS OF SUPREME COURT REVIEW

A
  1. DISCRETIONARY REVIEW (WRITS OF CERTIORARI)
  2. MANDATORY REVIEW (THREE JUDGE DISTRICT COURT PANELS RE INJUNCTIVE RELIEF)
  3. ORIGINAL AND EXCLUSIVE JURSIDSICTION (STATE V. STATE)
52
Q

2

WHERE A CASE RESTS, ON INDEPENDENT, ADQUATE STATE GROUNDS, THE SUPREME COURT

A
  1. WILL NOT GRANT REVIEW
  2. UNLESS THE DECISION CANNOT STAND ON STATE GROUNDS ALONE
53
Q

2

STATE OFFICIALS MAY BE SUED FOR DAMAGES IN THEIR INDIVIDUAL CAPACITY FOR FEDERAL CONSTITUTIONAL OR STATATUATORY RIGHT VIOLATIONS WHERE THEY WERE

A
  1. COMMITTED IN THE COURSE THEIR OFFICIAL DUTIES
  2. BUT THEY ARE ENTITLED TO CLAIM QUALIFIED IMMUNITY.
54
Q

2

AN ATTORNEY GENERAL WILL BE PROTECTED BY QUALIFIED IMMUNITY WHERE HIS CONDUCT DID NOT

A
  1. VIOLATE CLEARLY ESTABLISHED STATUATORY OR CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHTS
  2. OF WHICH A REASONABLE PERSON WOULD HAVE KNOWN
55
Q

1

THE NECESSARY AND PROPER CLAUSE MUST HAVE THIS TO ACCOMPLISH AN ACT

A
  1. ANOTHER FREE STANDING SOURCE OF CONGRESSONAL POWER
56
Q

3

GENERAL WELFARE CLAUSE ON AN ANSWER WILL GENERALLY INVOLVE

A
  1. TAXING
  2. SPENDING
  3. OR AN AREA WITHIN CONGRESS’ POLICE POWER
57
Q

2

DIFFERENT BURDENS REQUIRED FOR INTRASTATE ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES VS. INTRASTATE NON-ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES

A
  1. ECONOMIC = RATIONAL BASIS TO CONCLUDE ACTIVITY IN AGGREGATE WILL SUBSTANTIALLY AFFECTS INTERSTATE COMMERCE
  2. NON-ECONOMIC = DIRECT, SUBSTANTIAL EFFECT ON INTERSTATE COMMERCE (TOUGHER BURDEN TO MEET)
58
Q

3

CONGRESS CAN INDUCE STATE REGULATORY ACTION WHERE THE INDUCEMENT

A
  1. IS UNABMIGOUSLY STATED
  2. RELATES TO THE PURPOSE OF THE LAW
  3. IS NOT UNDULY COERCIVE
59
Q

1

CONGRESS CAN VEST THE POWER TO APPOINT INFERIOR OFFICES IN THE PRESIDENT. INFERIOR OFFICERS ARE OFFICERS

A
  1. WORKING UNDER PRESIDENTIALLY APPOINTED OFFICERS.
60
Q

1

PRESIDENT CAN REMOVE THIS LEVEL OF FEDERAL OFFICERS

A
  1. HIGH-LEVEL EXECUTIVE OFFICERS
61
Q

4

WHO CAN CONGRESS IMPEACH

A
  1. PRESIDENT
  2. VP
  3. FEDERAL JUDGES
  4. FEDERAL OFFICERS
62
Q

3

IMPLIED PREEMPTION TRIGGERS

A
  1. MUTUAL EXCLUSIVITY
  2. STATE LAW IMPEDES FEDERAL OBJECTIVE
  3. CONGRESS’ ACTION IMPLY CLEAR INTENT TO BE SOLE LEGISLATIVE AUTHORITY
63
Q

4

WORDS OF EXPRESS CONDITION ATTACHED TO A FEE SUBJECT TO CONDIDTION SUBSEQUENT OR EXECUTORY LIMITATION

THEY WILL MAKE A B HOP

A
  1. BUT IF,
  2. PROVIDED THAT,
  3. ON CONDITION THAT,
  4. HOWEVER
64
Q

1

IN CA, CASE LAW PROHIBITS JUDGE FROM GIVING JUDICIAL NOTICE TO

A

FACTS THAT PROSECUTION MUST PROVE BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT

65
Q

3

CA COURT’S CRITERIA FOR ANALYZING “COMMON COMMUNITY OF INTEREST” FOR CLASS ACTION REQUIREMENT.

A
  1. DO COMMON QUESTIONS OF LAW OR FACT PREDOMINATE?
  2. IS THE CLASS REPRESENTATIVE ADEQUATE?
  3. WILL THE CLASS EXISTENCE OFFER SUBSTANTIAL BENEFIT TO THE PARTIES AND THE COURT?
66
Q

1

ARTICLE IV - WATCH OUT FOR STATE LAW DISCRIMINATING AGAINST OUT OF STATE CITIZENS THAT HAS

A
  1. LESS DISCRIMINATORY MEANS AVAILABLE
67
Q

1

PRESIDENT CANNOT PARDON SOMEONE FOR

A
  1. CONVICTIONS LEADING TO IMPEACHMENT
68
Q

3

TREATY CONFLICTS

A
  1. STATE V. TREATY = TREATY PREVAILS
  2. FEDERAL LAW V. TREATY = MOST RECENT IN TIME PREVAILS
  3. CONSTITUTION V. TREATY = CONSTITUTION PREVAILS
69
Q

1

EXECUTIVE AGREEMENTS ONLY PREVAIL OVER

A
  1. CONFLICTING STATE LAWS
70
Q

1

A STATE TAX CAN ONLY TAX THE PORTION OF THE BUSINESS THAT IS

A
  1. ACTUALLY CONNECTED TO THE STATE
71
Q

4

THESE PORTIONS OF THE BILL OF RIGHTS ARE NOT EXTENDED BY THE 14TH AMENDMENT

A
  1. 3RD AMENDMENT AND QUARTERING SOLDIERS
  2. 5TH AMENDMENT RIGHT TO GRAND JURY
  3. 7TH AMENDMENT RIGHT TO JURY TRIAL IN CIVIL CASES
  4. 8TH AMENDMENT RIGHT AGAINST EXCESSIVE FINES
72
Q

2

REVERSE INCORPORATION AND THE 14TH AMENDMENT - THE 14TH AMENDMENT CAN APPLY TO THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT THOUGH

A
  1. FIFTH AMENDMENT DP CLAUSE
73
Q

2

PROCEDURAL DUE PROCESS - LIBERTY DEPRIVATIONS INCLUDE

A
  1. LOSS OF FREEDOM
  2. GOVERNMENT RESTRICTION OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
74
Q

5

PROCEDURAL DUE PROCESS - PROPERTY DEPRIVATIONS INCLUDE

A
  1. ANY LEGITIMATE CLAIM OR ENTITLEMENT TO A BENEFIT UNDER THE LAW
  2. PUBLIC SCHOOL ATTENDANCE
  3. WELFARE
  4. PUNITIVE DAMAGE AWARDS
  5. ENEMY COMBATANT STATUS
75
Q

2

BALANCING TEST FOR PROCEDURAL DUE PROCESS

A

NATURE OF DEPRIVED INTEREST

EXISTING PROCEDURAL SAFEGUARDS

BURDEN CREATED ON GOVERNMENT BY CREATING PROCEDURE

76
Q

1

SUBSTANTIVE DP V. PROCEDURAL DP

A
  1. COURT REVIEWS THE SUBSTANCE OF THE LAW, NOT THE PROCEDURES
77
Q

3

SUBSTANTIVE DUE PROCESS INVOLVES A DETERMINATION OF

A
  1. ADEQUACY OF GOVERNMENT’S REASONS FOR DEPRIVING LIFE, LIBERTY OR PROPERTY
  2. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT - STRICT SCRUTINY
  3. NON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT - RATIONAL BASIS
78
Q

1

ECONOMIC RIGHTS TYPICALLY RECEIVE THIS LEVEL OF SCRUTINY

A
  1. RATIONAL BASIS
79
Q

1

RETROACTIVE LEGISLATION REGARDING CIVIL LIABILITY MUST ONLY MEET

A

RATIONAL BASIS REVIEW

80
Q

1

BILLS OF ATTAINDER

A
  1. PUNISH SPECIFIC PERSONS WITHOUT A JUDICIAL TRIAL
81
Q

2

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE CREATED BY BOTH

A

FIF

82
Q

2

TO PROVE A DISCRIMINATORY MOTIVE IS BEHIND A LAW, YOU HAVE TO PROVE

A
  1. NOT JUST DISCRIMINATORY IMPACT but
  2. DISCRIMINATORY MOTIVE PROVED THROUGH ACTUAL EVIDENCE
83
Q

1

WORKING AS A NOTARY PUBLIC IS

A
  1. NOT INTEGRAL TO SELF GOVT. AND THE DEMOCRATIC PROCESS
84
Q

2

THESE GENDER CLASSIFICATIONS HAVE PASSED INTERMEDIATE SCRUTINY

A
  1. STATUTORY RAPE LAWS
  2. ALL MALE MILITARY DRAFT
85
Q

3

LAWS CRIMINALIZING GROUP MEMBERSHIP ARE ONLY ALLOWED WHERE

A
  1. GROUP INVOLVED WITH ILLEGAL ACTIVITIES
  2. DEFENDANT HAD KNOWLEDGE OF ILLEGAL ACTIVITIES
  3. DEFENDANT JOINED GROUP WITH SPECIFIC INTENT OF FURTHERING ACTIVITIES
86
Q

1

PERMIT FEES THAT VARY BASED ON THE TYPE OF SPEECH ARE

A
  1. UNCONSTITUTIONAL
87
Q

2

IN A NON-PUBLIC FORUM, GOVERNMENT REGULATE THIS ASPECT OF SPEECH CONTENT

A
  1. THE SUBJECT
  2. (BUT NOT THE VIEWPOINT)
88
Q

2

ADULTS PLAYING CHILDREN WILL NOT QUALIFY AS

A

CP

89
Q

2

VOTING AGREEMENT HAS

A

NO FILING REQUIREMENT

NO TIME LIMIT

90
Q

2

PROMOTERS REMAIN PERSONALLY LIABLE ON A PRE-INC CONTRACT UNTIL THIS IS SIGNED

A

NOVATION

91
Q

1

TO ENGAGE IN INTRASTATE BUSINESS IN A FOREIGN STATE, A CORPORATION MUST FILE A

A
  1. CERTIFICATE OF AUTHORITY
92
Q

2

WHO IS LIABLE IF STOCK IS SOLD FOR LESS THAN PAR VALUE

A

D’S WHO SIGNED OFF ON SALE

PURCHASER (SHAREHOLDERS MUST BE FULL CONSIDERATION FOR SHARES)

93
Q

2

COMMON LAW - NOT ALLOWED FOR STOCK PURCHASE

A

FUTURE SERVICES

UNSECURED DEBT

94
Q

2

MODERN RULE - ALLOWED FOR STOCK PURCHASE

A
  1. ANY TANGIBLE OR INTANGIBLE BENEFIT,
  2. PAST, PRESENT OR FUTURE
95
Q

2

WHERE THE BOD VOTED FOR AN ACTION, EACH D IS PRESUMED TO CONCUR WITH BOD ACTION UNLESS

A
  1. D MADE A DISSENT OR ABSENTION IN WRITING
96
Q

1

CORPORATE OFFICERS - APPOINTMENT

A
  1. SELECTED AND REMOVED BY DIRECTORS
97
Q

2

WHO DECIDES TO INDEMNIFY A CORPORATE AGENT OR DIRECTOR?

A

MAJORITY OF INDEPENDENT BOARD MEMBERS OR

MAJORITY OF INDEPENDENT SHAREHOLDERS

98
Q

2

DERIVATIVE SUITS - SHAREHOLDERS MUST OWN STOCKS

A
  1. WHEN CLAIM AROSE
  2. THROUGHOUT LITIGATION
99
Q

2

SPECIAL SHAREHOLDERS MEETING CAN BE CALLED BY

A

BOD

PRESIDENT

10 PERCENT OF VOTING SHARES

100
Q

1

SPECIAL SHAREHOLDERS MEETINGS ARE LIMITED TO TOPIC OF

A
  1. STATED PURPOSE
101
Q

4

POOLED OR BLOCK VOTING TRUST REQUIRES

A
  1. WRITTENT TRUST AGREEMENT
  2. FILED WITH CORPORATION
  3. SHAREHOLDER GETS TRUST CERTIFICATES
  4. SHAREHOLDER REATINS ALL RIGHTS BUT VOTING
102
Q

2

WHEN EVALUATING OPTIONS THAT MAKE A DEFAMATION CASE MORE STRONG, CONSIDER WHETHERE THE PLAINTIFF IS

A
  1. A PUBLIC OR
  2. PRIVATE FIGURE
103
Q

2

SEVERABILITY OF ADMISSIONS CONNECTED WITH MEDICAL EXPENSES, CEC MAKES BOTH

A
  1. THE OFFER TO PAY
  2. AND ADMISSION OF GUILT INADMISSIBLE
104
Q

2

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN CEC AND FRE REGARDING FORMER ACTS OF SEXUAL ASSAULT/CHILD MOLSETSATION

A

What is difference btwn the FRE and CEC regarding admissibility of prior acts of sexual assault/child molestation?

1) The FRE allows propensity evidence in civil AND criminal cases. But, CEC only allows in criminal cases. 2) CEC permits propensity evidence in criminal cases that charge domestic violence or elder abuse–but the FRE do not.

105
Q

2

CEC - JUDICIAL NOTICE - JUDGE MUST TAKE NOTICE OF

A
  1. MATTERS GENERALLY KNOWN WITHIN THE JURSIDICTION,
  2. WHETHER NOTICE REQUESTED OR NOT
106
Q

2

CA CRIMINAL CASE - IMPEACHING WITNESS’ CREDIBILITY. DIFFERENCE FROM FRE - WITNESS CAN BE IMPEACHED WITH

A
  1. PAST BAD ACTS
  2. EXTRINSIC EVIDENCE
107
Q
A