CD Senior Questions

Question 0

The portion of the gross energy in a feedstuff which is not excreted in the feces is known as what?

Answer 0

Digestible energy.

Question 1

Abortion is defined as the expulsion of the fetus at how many days gestation?

Answer 1

Prior to 300 days.

Question 2

Name three trace minerals relevant to equine nutrition.

Answer 2

Iodine, zinc, manganese, iron, copper, cobalt, and selenium.

Question 3

How many bones comprise the metatarsals of the hind limb?

Answer 3

3 bones.

Question 4

What is exostosis?

Answer 4

A benign bony growth projecting outward from the surface of a bone; abnormal growth of the periosteum.

Question 5

What four parts make up the cardiovascular system?

Answer 5

Heart, arteries, capillaries, veins.

Question 6

What is the average gestation period in the horse in days?

Answer 6

335-340.

Question 7

What is meant by the term dystocia?

Answer 7

Any foaling problems which prevents the delivery of the foal by the mare’s efforts alone.

Question 8

Where is the primary site of protein digestion in the horse?

Answer 8

Small intestine.

Question 9

What is the hormone produced by the pituitary gland that results in the maturation of the egg?

Answer 9

FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone).

Question 10

Name the two major components of blood.

Answer 10

Plasma and cells.

Question 11

What percentage of the gastrointestinal tract does the small intestine compose?

Answer 11

30 percent.

Question 12

The basic metabolic rate (BMR) is governed to a large extent by the product of the thyroid gland. Name this product.

Answer 12

Thyroxin.

Question 13

What happens to the cervix of the mare during diestrus and in pregnancy?

Answer 13

It seals up so it is impermeable to fluids, debris, and bacteria.

Question 14

What is the name given to an enlargement of the knee joint as a result of inflammation to the joint capsule?

Answer 14

Popped-knee or carpitis.

Question 15

What do weighted do to a horse’s leg action?

Answer 15

Enhance leg action by changing the timing and adding momentum to hoof flight patterns.

Question 16

About 50-70% of the protein in a grain based diet is digested to what prior to being absorbed from the small intestine?

Answer 16

Amino acids.

Question 17

Name a program that can be used to schedule or synchronize mares in a live cover breeding situation.

Answer 17

Progesterone therapy.

Question 18

Why should barley be crimped or rolled before feeding it to horses?

Answer 18

Because is has a tough hull.

Question 19

Describe the different modes of action between heparin and aspirin.

Answer 19

Aspirin prevents platelets from adhering to vessels and heparin interferes with the actual clotting mechanism.

Question 20

The concave side of the ovary is called what?

Answer 20

Ovulation fossa.

Question 21

After horse has received the two recommended toxoid vaccine (3 to 4 weeks apart), what vaccination program is recommended to prevent tetanus?

Answer 21

Booster injection with toxoid annually.

Question 22

The newborn foal will develop new incisor teeth within how many days of life?

Answer 22

8 days.

Question 23

What are the symptoms of white line disease?

Answer 23

Wall separation, brown specks next to the white line, and lame when the hoof won’t hold the shoe on.

Question 24

A green color of hay would indicate that high levels of which fat-soluble vitamin is present?

Answer 24

Vitamin A.

Question 25

A product consisting of 80% propionic of acid and 20% acidic acid can be used during the harvesting of hay for what reason?

Answer 25

As a preservative or to prevent mold.

Question 26

What is a gravel?

Answer 26

A condition which is usually caused by penetration of the protective covering of the hoof by small bits of gravel or dirt.

Question 27

Name three factors that affect a horse's balance.

Answer 27

Confirmation, gait, speed, level of training, degree of collection, hoof length, shoe weight, head position and weight, the riders skill and weight, the load the horse is pulling.

Question 28

Name three types of fences suitable for horses.

Answer 28

Wooden board fencing, post and rail fencing, twisted barbless wire fencing, chain-link fencing, pipe and cable fencing, rubber fencing.

Question 29

What is the resting heart rate of a yearling?

Answer 29

50-60 beats per minute.

Question 30

Moxidectin and ivermectin belong to what chemical class of anthelmintics?

Answer 30

Avermectin.

Question 31

What is the maximum height for a Shetland pony?

Answer 31

46 inches or 11.2 hands.

Question 32

Where does the G. Intestinalis or common bot lay its eggs?

Answer 32

On the forelimbs and shoulders.

Question 33

If a clay and sand mix is to be used for a stall floor, what are the proportions of each material that should be used?

Answer 33

2/3 clay and 1/3 sand.

Question 34

What is the minimum size recommended for a stallion stall?

Answer 34

12 X 14 feet.

Question 35

Give two examples of conditions that would indicate that a foal is infested with ascarids.

Answer 35

Smaller than normal growth; dull hair coat; dry, leathery skin; distended abdomen.

Question 36

What type of horses are referred to as cold blooded?

Answer 36

Draft breeds.

Question 37

Give 4 examples of damage that ascarid infestations can do to horses.

Answer 37

Ruptures, chronic enteritis, malnutrition, and destructive migration through liver and lungs.

Question 38

What is Trimethoprim sulfadiazine? | Try-meth-a-prim sole-fa-dye-ah-zeen

Answer 38

An antibiotic.

Question 39

What class does the horse belong to?

Answer 39

Mammalia.

Question 40

What disease is characterized by an acute upper respiratory tract infection caused by a specific herpes virus that may also cause abortion?

Answer 40

Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA).

Question 41

Why does a horse need vitamin D in its diet?

Answer 41

To maintain the plasma calcium concentration.

Question 42

Why is choline not a vitamin even though it is classified as a B-vitamin?

Answer 42

It can be synthesized in adequate amounts by all mammals.

Question 43

Name two things approximate analysis of feed helps determine.

Answer 43

Content of moisture and crude protein.

Question 44

Name two systems of the horse's body that use smooth muscles.

Answer 44

Digestive, circulatory, respiratory, and urogenital.

Question 45

Name two of the three parts that comprise an athletic horse's training program.

Answer 45

Initial stage, developmental stage, and a maintenance stage.

Question 46

What is the purpose of imprint training?

Answer 46

Desensitizes the foal to handling and other external stimuli, and sensitizes the foal to respond to human requests.

Question 47

What types of health problems are foals subject to when they are weaned?

Answer 47

Decreased growth rate, increased susceptibility to infections diseases, gastric ulcers, and self-induced injury.

Question 48

What is the difference between canine teeth and wolf teeth?

Answer 48

Canine- four teeth in the interdental space almost exclusive to the male horse. Wolf- a small tooth that appears at the base of the first premolar and can be found in the male or female horse.

Question 49

Name two of the four syndromes that may occur in foals with gastrointestinal ulcers.

Answer 49

Subclinical, clinical, perforation, and obstruction due to constriction upon healing.

Question 50

What are the components of light salt?

Answer 50

Sodium chloride and potassium chloride.

Question 51

Why is casein good to feed to a sick horse?

Answer 51

High protein content, high digestibility, and high quality protein, can be put in a slurry and administered via a stomach tube.

Question 52

What is the major source of energy in an IV solution fed to a sick horse?

Answer 52

Glucose.

Question 53

Give five advantages of pelleted horsefeed.

Answer 53

Less bulky to store, balanced ration, less waste, eliminates dusty feed, less fattening, less pollution.

Question 54

Why do horses being fed IV solutions need potassium supplementation?

Answer 54

The high amount of glucose in the solution stimulates insulin secretion, which increases potassium movement into the cell.

Question 55

Horses with the stratus medium defect of the wall respond well to what type of supplementation?

Answer 55

Calcium and protein.

Question 56

What is the main purpose for feeding a horse psyilium?

Answer 56

Reducing sand or dirt colic.

Question 57

What hormone does the medulla secrete?

Answer 57

Epinephrine.

Question 58

What is the name of the cup shaped part of the pelvis formed by the ileum and ischium in the horse?

Answer 58

Acetabulum.

Question 59

Name the unsoundness that causes excessive pressure on the third phalanx or coffin bone.

Answer 59

Contracted heels.

Question 60

What is the purpose of a pritchel?

Answer 60

To open the nail holes on a horseshoe.

Question 61

What does atropine do in the horse?

Answer 61

Relaxes involuntary muscle spasms.

Question 62

What nutrient deficiency will cause nursing difficulties?

Answer 62

Selenium.

Question 63

What vitamin deficiency causes subcutaneous swelling and/or edema?

Answer 63

Vitamin E.

Question 64

At what age is it most beneficial to begin exercise of young horses to increase physical fitness?

Answer 64

18 months.

Question 65

The dilution gene affecting color is an example of what type of gene action in an intermediate state but not an exact intermediate?

Answer 65

Partial dominance.

Question 66

During the forage production, one acre of good, improved pasture receiving the optimum amount of moisture may yield the equivalent of how much nutritious, high-quality forage?

Answer 66

5-7 tons.

Question 67

Horses with thin, brittle hoof walls, can benefit from being fed what nutrient?

Answer 67

Biotin, calcium.

Question 68

What is the general name for cracks in the hoof wall?

Answer 68

Sand cracks.

Question 69

How soon after ovulation can pregnancy be diagnosed by ultrasound?

Answer 69

11-14 days.

Question 70

What is the treatment to relieve a horse of the pain caused by a bone spavin?

Answer 70

Surgery that cuts the cunean tendon to relieve tensions and pressure over the spavin.

Question 71

For what reason might your horse wear bar shoe?

Answer 71

For contracted heels or navicular lameness.

Question 72

What is a complete feed?

Answer 72

Hay and concentrate have been incorporated into a pellet.

Question 73

What is the average cardiac output of a horse in liters?

Answer 73

35 liters.

Question 74

Open mares should be fed the same type of diet as a mature horse at what level?

Answer 74

Maintenance.

Question 75

Name three methods of castrating horses.

Answer 75

Primary closure method, closed technique, open technique.