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Horse Bowl Questions > CD Senior Questions > Flashcards

CD Senior Questions Flashcards

0
Q

The portion of the gross energy in a feedstuff which is not excreted in the feces is known as what?

A

Digestible energy.

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1
Q

Abortion is defined as the expulsion of the fetus at how many days gestation?

A

Prior to 300 days.

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2
Q

Name three trace minerals relevant to equine nutrition.

A

Iodine, zinc, manganese, iron, copper, cobalt, and selenium.

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3
Q

How many bones comprise the metatarsals of the hind limb?

A

3 bones.

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4
Q

What is exostosis?

A

A benign bony growth projecting outward from the surface of a bone; abnormal growth of the periosteum.

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5
Q

What four parts make up the cardiovascular system?

A

Heart, arteries, capillaries, veins.

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6
Q

What is the average gestation period in the horse in days?

A

335-340.

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7
Q

What is meant by the term dystocia?

A

Any foaling problems which prevents the delivery of the foal by the mare’s efforts alone.

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8
Q

Where is the primary site of protein digestion in the horse?

A

Small intestine.

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9
Q

What is the hormone produced by the pituitary gland that results in the maturation of the egg?

A

FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone).

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10
Q

Name the two major components of blood.

A

Plasma and cells.

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11
Q

What percentage of the gastrointestinal tract does the small intestine compose?

A

30 percent.

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12
Q

The basic metabolic rate (BMR) is governed to a large extent by the product of the thyroid gland. Name this product.

A

Thyroxin.

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13
Q

What happens to the cervix of the mare during diestrus and in pregnancy?

A

It seals up so it is impermeable to fluids, debris, and bacteria.

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14
Q

What is the name given to an enlargement of the knee joint as a result of inflammation to the joint capsule?

A

Popped-knee or carpitis.

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15
Q

What do weighted do to a horse’s leg action?

A

Enhance leg action by changing the timing and adding momentum to hoof flight patterns.

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16
Q

About 50-70% of the protein in a grain based diet is digested to what prior to being absorbed from the small intestine?

A

Amino acids.

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17
Q

Name a program that can be used to schedule or synchronize mares in a live cover breeding situation.

A

Progesterone therapy.

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18
Q

Why should barley be crimped or rolled before feeding it to horses?

A

Because is has a tough hull.

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19
Q

Describe the different modes of action between heparin and aspirin.

A

Aspirin prevents platelets from adhering to vessels and heparin interferes with the actual clotting mechanism.

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20
Q

The concave side of the ovary is called what?

A

Ovulation fossa.

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21
Q

After horse has received the two recommended toxoid vaccine (3 to 4 weeks apart), what vaccination program is recommended to prevent tetanus?

A

Booster injection with toxoid annually.

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22
Q

The newborn foal will develop new incisor teeth within how many days of life?

A

8 days.

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23
Q

What are the symptoms of white line disease?

A

Wall separation, brown specks next to the white line, and lame when the hoof won’t hold the shoe on.

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24
Q

A green color of hay would indicate that high levels of which fat-soluble vitamin is present?

A

Vitamin A.

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25
Q

A product consisting of 80% propionic of acid and 20% acidic acid can be used during the harvesting of hay for what reason?

A

As a preservative or to prevent mold.

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26
Q

What is a gravel?

A

A condition which is usually caused by penetration of the protective covering of the hoof by small bits of gravel or dirt.

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27
Q

Name three factors that affect a horse’s balance.

A

Confirmation, gait, speed, level of training, degree of collection, hoof length, shoe weight, head position and weight, the riders skill and weight, the load the horse is pulling.

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28
Q

Name three types of fences suitable for horses.

A

Wooden board fencing, post and rail fencing, twisted barbless wire fencing, chain-link fencing, pipe and cable fencing, rubber fencing.

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29
Q

What is the resting heart rate of a yearling?

A

50-60 beats per minute.

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30
Q

Moxidectin and ivermectin belong to what chemical class of anthelmintics?

A

Avermectin.

31
Q

What is the maximum height for a Shetland pony?

A

46 inches or 11.2 hands.

32
Q

Where does the G. Intestinalis or common bot lay its eggs?

A

On the forelimbs and shoulders.

33
Q

If a clay and sand mix is to be used for a stall floor, what are the proportions of each material that should be used?

A

2/3 clay and 1/3 sand.

34
Q

What is the minimum size recommended for a stallion stall?

A

12 X 14 feet.

35
Q

Give two examples of conditions that would indicate that a foal is infested with ascarids.

A

Smaller than normal growth; dull hair coat; dry, leathery skin; distended abdomen.

36
Q

What type of horses are referred to as cold blooded?

A

Draft breeds.

37
Q

Give 4 examples of damage that ascarid infestations can do to horses.

A

Ruptures, chronic enteritis, malnutrition, and destructive migration through liver and lungs.

38
Q

What is Trimethoprim sulfadiazine?

Try-meth-a-prim sole-fa-dye-ah-zeen

A

An antibiotic.

39
Q

What class does the horse belong to?

A

Mammalia.

40
Q

What disease is characterized by an acute upper respiratory tract infection caused by a specific herpes virus that may also cause abortion?

A

Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA).

41
Q

Why does a horse need vitamin D in its diet?

A

To maintain the plasma calcium concentration.

42
Q

Why is choline not a vitamin even though it is classified as a B-vitamin?

A

It can be synthesized in adequate amounts by all mammals.

43
Q

Name two things approximate analysis of feed helps determine.

A

Content of moisture and crude protein.

44
Q

Name two systems of the horse’s body that use smooth muscles.

A

Digestive, circulatory, respiratory, and urogenital.

45
Q

Name two of the three parts that comprise an athletic horse’s training program.

A

Initial stage, developmental stage, and a maintenance stage.

46
Q

What is the purpose of imprint training?

A

Desensitizes the foal to handling and other external stimuli, and sensitizes the foal to respond to human requests.

47
Q

What types of health problems are foals subject to when they are weaned?

A

Decreased growth rate, increased susceptibility to infections diseases, gastric ulcers, and self-induced injury.

48
Q

What is the difference between canine teeth and wolf teeth?

A

Canine- four teeth in the interdental space almost exclusive to the male horse.
Wolf- a small tooth that appears at the base of the first premolar and can be found in the male or female horse.

49
Q

Name two of the four syndromes that may occur in foals with gastrointestinal ulcers.

A

Subclinical, clinical, perforation, and obstruction due to constriction upon healing.

50
Q

What are the components of light salt?

A

Sodium chloride and potassium chloride.

51
Q

Why is casein good to feed to a sick horse?

A

High protein content, high digestibility, and high quality protein, can be put in a slurry and administered via a stomach tube.

52
Q

What is the major source of energy in an IV solution fed to a sick horse?

A

Glucose.

53
Q

Give five advantages of pelleted horsefeed.

A

Less bulky to store, balanced ration, less waste, eliminates dusty feed, less fattening, less pollution.

54
Q

Why do horses being fed IV solutions need potassium supplementation?

A

The high amount of glucose in the solution stimulates insulin secretion, which increases potassium movement into the cell.

55
Q

Horses with the stratus medium defect of the wall respond well to what type of supplementation?

A

Calcium and protein.

56
Q

What is the main purpose for feeding a horse psyilium?

A

Reducing sand or dirt colic.

57
Q

What hormone does the medulla secrete?

A

Epinephrine.

58
Q

What is the name of the cup shaped part of the pelvis formed by the ileum and ischium in the horse?

A

Acetabulum.

59
Q

Name the unsoundness that causes excessive pressure on the third phalanx or coffin bone.

A

Contracted heels.

60
Q

What is the purpose of a pritchel?

A

To open the nail holes on a horseshoe.

61
Q

What does atropine do in the horse?

A

Relaxes involuntary muscle spasms.

62
Q

What nutrient deficiency will cause nursing difficulties?

A

Selenium.

63
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes subcutaneous swelling and/or edema?

A

Vitamin E.

64
Q

At what age is it most beneficial to begin exercise of young horses to increase physical fitness?

A

18 months.

65
Q

The dilution gene affecting color is an example of what type of gene action in an intermediate state but not an exact intermediate?

A

Partial dominance.

66
Q

During the forage production, one acre of good, improved pasture receiving the optimum amount of moisture may yield the equivalent of how much nutritious, high-quality forage?

A

5-7 tons.

67
Q

Horses with thin, brittle hoof walls, can benefit from being fed what nutrient?

A

Biotin, calcium.

68
Q

What is the general name for cracks in the hoof wall?

A

Sand cracks.

69
Q

How soon after ovulation can pregnancy be diagnosed by ultrasound?

A

11-14 days.

70
Q

What is the treatment to relieve a horse of the pain caused by a bone spavin?

A

Surgery that cuts the cunean tendon to relieve tensions and pressure over the spavin.

71
Q

For what reason might your horse wear bar shoe?

A

For contracted heels or navicular lameness.

72
Q

What is a complete feed?

A

Hay and concentrate have been incorporated into a pellet.

73
Q

What is the average cardiac output of a horse in liters?

A

35 liters.

74
Q

Open mares should be fed the same type of diet as a mature horse at what level?

A

Maintenance.

75
Q

Name three methods of castrating horses.

A

Primary closure method, closed technique, open technique.

Horse Bowl Questions (9 decks)

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