CCT CDC URE'S A-set V-3 Flashcards

This flashcard deck was created using Flashcardlet's card creator

0
Q

What are the stages of a CSAR mission?

A

Awareness and notification, situation assessment, mission planning, execution, and mission conclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the preferred method of recovery ?

A

Single unit recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary search and rescue facility for planning coordinating and executing joint CSAR operations within the geographical area assigned to the joint force?

A

JSRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is responsible for movement of casualties to the choke point?

A

Aid and litter teams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

On a CSAR mission which personnel would be on the first helicopters out of the objective site?

A

Injured personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does the TL direct destruction of the downed aircraft on a CSAR mission?

A

After all personnel are accounted for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Reconnaissance missions are concerned with enemy , weather and ?

A

Terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the meaning of surveillance?

A

Surveillance is a passive and implies observing a specified area or areas systematically from a fixed concealed position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the process of IPB?

A

IPB defines the battlefield environment describes the effects of the battlefield evaluates the threat and determines enemy course of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is / are the basic principle that drive R&S missions?

A

Tell the commander what they need to know in time for them to act; then do as much as possible ahead of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which assessment during a R&S mission confirms corrects refutes or adds to intelligence that has already been collected?

A

PAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which reconnaissance is the visual photographic or electron survey to measure results of?

A

Poststrike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How far must an OP be from the objective?

A

Outside enemy small arms weapons range and local security measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which ground based surveillance site falls under the heading of prepared sites?

A

Caves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary rule of thumb when constructing a surveillance site?

A

Work must be done during darkness and the site must be occupied before sunrise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The primary problem in constructing a surveillance site is?

A

Dirt removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At what distance would a team normally request insertion into a desert environment?

A

No more than 1 to 2 kilometers from the hide or surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which observation acronym do you use to make log entries of enemy force activity?

A

SALUTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What must accompany an observers log to support the data entries?

A

A field sketch of the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The primary focus when using the acronym OCOKA is?

A

Terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which observation acronym do you use when enemy personnel are in your primary target?

A

SALUTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of photography allows analysts to examine equipment in lieu of the actual item?

A

Technical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When observing an object at night which night vision technique do you use to enhance visibility?

A

Look just to the side of the object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you avoid enemy detection when using NVGs?

A

Use NVGs in the passive mode except in extreme cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which type of intelligence is gathered electronically ?

A

IMINT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What information of potential intelligence value is available to the public?

A

OSINT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which intelligence agency is responsible for conducting special activities approved by the president?

A

CIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which agency is the single national program to meet us government needs through space born reconnaissance ?

A

Nro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The transmitter of a radio contains an oscillator which generates rf energy in the form of ?

A

Ac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What converts electromagnetic energy into rf alternating current?

A

Antenna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Within what range do the majority of tactical radios operate?

A

2-400mhz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which components of a ground wave form the space wave?

A

Direct wave and reflected wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which frequency band is especially receptive to poor reception?

A

UHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

As frequencies over a particular sky wave path increase a frequency level is reached at which the received signal just overrides the level of atmospheric interference this we call the?

A

Lug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which organization in cooperation with weather observers at Schroeder afb Colorado publishes weather forecasting information concerning space weather and it’s effective on gf propagation?

A

NOAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What organization is responsible for overall policy and system procedures of satellite communications?

A

Somo

36
Q

What is another name we use to identify an area covered by each satellite?

A

Footprints

37
Q

To access a satellite network you need to know the azimuth to ?

A

The satellite from your position and the vertical angle or elevation above the horizon

38
Q

What do we call the difference in megahertz and kilohertz between the uplink and downlink during satcom operations?

A

Offset

39
Q

What are the geographical limitations of the afsatcom constellation ?

A

75north latitude and 75south latitude

40
Q

Which antenna pattern is not one of the ways antennas radiate?

A

Semidirectional

41
Q

Which antenna pattern are you using when you are operating a radio with a whip antenna?

A

Omnidirectional

42
Q

Which style of antenna pattern is best used for long range point to point circuits where radio energy is concentrated to increase reliability?

A

Directional

43
Q

Usually we measure wavelengths of a radio signal in?

A

Meters

44
Q

Once you figure the full wavelength of a radio frequency how do you turn this into a quarter wavelength frequency ?

A

Divide the full wavelength by 4

45
Q

Which agencies would supply you with the optimum takeoff angles for hf communications ?

A

USAF and NOAA

46
Q

What antenna length is necessary to accommodate a quarter wave length antenna for 5 MHz ?

A

Approximate 49 feet long

47
Q

Where is the best location to mount a whip antenna on a mobile radio vehicle if you want the strongest signal to radiate toward the right side of the vehicle ?

A

Left rear

48
Q

When using a nivis antenna for communications generally the maximum range is ?

A

500 miles

49
Q

Which radio would you use for a frequency of 38.90 VHF/ fm?

A

Prc-117f

50
Q

Which radio automatically has secure voice?

A

Prc-117f

51
Q

What is the primary use of the Prc -138 radio?

A

Long range ground to ground communications

52
Q

What is the frequency range of the Prc 138 radio?

A

1.6 to 59.999,9 MHz

53
Q

Which type of communications would you be working if the Psc-5 is working in the dama operations mode?

A

Satcom

54
Q

What is the VHF low frequency range of the Psc-5 radio?

A

30.00 to 80.00 MHz

55
Q

How man channels can the Psc -5 continuously scan for in coming traffic?

A

2 channels

56
Q

From how far away from your vehicle can you remotely control the grc-206 rsc unit?

A

3 kilometers

57
Q

What is the power output of the hf radio in the grc-206 ?

A

150 watts

58
Q

Which is not a type of electronic warfare jamming signal that may be used against you?

A

Radiation

59
Q

Which action would make you volnerable to enemy attempts to disrupt your communications?

A

Transmit at a scheduled time each day and no more than three times a day

60
Q

Which term identifies a program for overcoming the enemy’s threat to our communications?

A

Comsec

61
Q

Which type of comsec consist of cryptographic tables that allow you encode messages?

A

Manual crypto-systems

62
Q

Rechallenge if you do not revive a reply to your authentication within

A

10 seconds

63
Q

Destroy old comsec material as soon as possible or at least by how many hours after suppression?

A

12

64
Q

Which procedure is not an approved method of destroying paper based comsec?

A

Ripping

65
Q

How can you destroy Mylar keytapes?

A

Burning or shredding

66
Q

How many channels are available for code storage with the kyk-13?

A

6

67
Q

In what mode do you configure a ky-99 in order to communicate with another system using a ky-57?

A

Vinson

68
Q

The ppn-19 is best described as?

A

A passive transponder

69
Q

What is the power output of the ppn-19?

A

200 watts

70
Q

What feature of the sst-181 is operator adjustable?

A

Code selector switch

71
Q

What is the primary use of the sst-181

A

Acquisition aid

72
Q

The distance between pulses of the sst-181 transponder is

A

4-12 miles

73
Q

What feature of the sst -181 is operator adjustable?

A

Pulse range

74
Q

What is the range of the tpn-27?

A

20 nautical miles

75
Q

The xmt/bat spring loaded toggle swiched on the tpn-27 must be in which setting to transmit ?

A

Center

76
Q

In which assault zone is the tpn -27 exclusively used as an acquisition aid?

A

Dz

77
Q

The trn-41 provides?

A

Azimuth tacan identification and distance

78
Q

What is the maximum amount of wind the trn-41 can withstand using the grounding stake?

A

50 knots

79
Q

What is the range of the an/trn-41?

A

75 miles

80
Q

Which would be an acceptable power source for the trn-45?

A

115 vac 60hz

81
Q

What is the normal configuration of the trn-45?

A

Collocates site

82
Q

Which option is not viewable as a ditance and velocity unit on the an/pan-11 plgr?

A

Feet

83
Q

Which battery can be used with the an/psn -11 plgr?

A

Ba-5800

84
Q

You use the rang-calc function of the an/psn-11 plgr to find

A

Unknown grid coordination

85
Q

Which information does not allow data transfer with the an/psr -11 plgr?

A

Saved waypoint names

86
Q

What is the standard unit of measurement for power?

A

Watt

87
Q

What is the air force designator for dry cell batteries?

A

Ba

88
Q

Which battery do we normally use as a power source for the Prc-117?

A

Ba-5590