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JTAC > Cct CDC A-set URE'S v-1 > Flashcards

Cct CDC A-set URE'S v-1 Flashcards

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0
Q

What world war II unit was the first to employ helicopters in combat?

A

1st Air commando Group

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1
Q

Where did the 82d airborne division jump in June 1943?

A

Sicily

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2
Q

The pathfinder squadron, provisional was activated?

A

Jan 1953 at Donaldson AFB south Carolina

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3
Q

Where was the first real world deployment for CCT?

A

Lebanon

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4
Q

Where was the first CCS opened?

A

Sewart, AFB Tennessee

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5
Q

What unit was known as the air commando?

A

4400th combat crew training squadron

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6
Q

What marine combat support base did CCTs help to resupply during a 3 month siege?

A

Khe Sanh

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7
Q

What procedures did Sergeant Wollmann and the us rangers help to develop for the “ Desert one “ mission?

A

Airfield seizures and blacked out landing

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8
Q

The desert one tragedy was the driving force behind the formation of?

A

USSOCOM

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9
Q

During the invasion of Grenada what was the personnel drop altitude at point Salinas?

A

500 feet

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10
Q

During “just cause” what two airfields did us forces seize simultaneously?

A

Rio Hato and tocumen international airport

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11
Q

During desert storm what capability did the three- man Cct element possess that became indispensable to the units to which they were attached?

A

GPS navigation

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12
Q

Who received the silver star for his gallantry at the battle of the olympic hotel?

A

Ssgt Jeff Bray

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13
Q

What prominent us government official resigned following the battle of the Olympic hotel?

A

Secretary of defense

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14
Q

What combat controller died providing covering fire for his team during the battle of Roberts ridge?

A

Tsgt John Chapman

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15
Q

What command owns the combat control instructors?

A

(AETC) air education and training command

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16
Q

What are the most beneficial aspects of consolidating Cct under AFSOC?

A

Standardization of training and equipment

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17
Q

The SOLE is normally located at ?

A

The AOC

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18
Q

What should the TL do if a control measure does not pass the “ purpose test” and it unnecessarily restricts freedom of actions?

A

Do not use it

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19
Q

Which one of the common traits of special operations prevents the enemy from gaining knowledge of an impending attack?

A

Security

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20
Q

What are the two kinds of mission planning?

A

Deliberate planning and time - sensitive planning

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21
Q

What type of process is the development of course of action?

A

Bottom- up

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22
Q

What is the customary way to brief an OPORD?

A

Have the member who worked on a particular section brief it

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23
Q

If only one segment of a mission can be rehearsed what should it be?

A

Action on the objective

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24
Q

The special tactics TL briefing is oriented towards?

A

CCT traditional missions

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25
Q

In addition to the warning order information and a solid unit training SOP what other data is needed to construct warning order?

A

A risk assessment worksheet

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26
Q

What guideline should you follow when revealing information?

A

Keep it on a need to know basis

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27
Q

Which FPCON would be implemented when “ an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity exists”?

A

FPCON ALPHA

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28
Q

What is an advantage of static-line parachuting techniques?

A

The lower drop altitude

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29
Q

A normal MFF may occur at any altitude from as low as 5,000 feet to as high as ?

A

35,000 feet

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30
Q

Which document governs static-line operations?

A

TO 14D1-2-1-121

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31
Q

Two static line jumpers are under canopy. Which has the right of way?

A

The lower jumper

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32
Q

Describe the action two static line parachutist jumping the MC-1B/C who become entangled should take?

A

Both parachutist immediately deploy their reserves

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33
Q

What can result from an LPU being positioned between the parachute harness and the body?

A

Serious injury

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34
Q

During a parachute operation where do you attach an exposed weapon?

A

To your left shoulder muzzle down

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35
Q

At what time warning do parachutist attach their equipment?

A

20- minute

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36
Q

When does the JM issue the jump command “stand by”?

A

At approximately 10 seconds before exit time

37
Q

After what jump command is the door bundle positioned in the door?

A

7th

38
Q

What is a modification to standard jump procedures when making and aft end ( tailgate) jump?

A

Use a reverse bight

39
Q

How much time should you take to locate a floating ripcord?

A

Make one try to pull the ripcord using a maximum of 2 seconds

40
Q

How many threads must be showing on the FF-2 knurl nut when rigged properly?

A

3

41
Q

When jumping the AR2 what must be done prior to each jump?

A

Check it for aneroid leakage

42
Q

Which of the following materials is acceptable for attaching you fins to your body during a jump?

A

80- pound tape

43
Q

In order what are the three phases o an airmobile operation?

A

Loading, air movement, and landing.

44
Q

When developing the air movement plan consider the weight of a combat troop to be ?

A

240 pounds

45
Q

How many chem lights are used to mark a fast rope at night?

A

6

46
Q

What is the capacity of a snap link with the gate closed?

A

2,000 pounds

47
Q

What direction will the helicopter pilot attempt to fly if he experiences an emergency when conducting a rope ladder exfiltration?

A

Forward and to the left

48
Q

What is the maximum number of personnel that can be extracted by SPIES?

A

14

49
Q

What Is the recommended maximum load for SPIES operations?

A

5,000 pounds

50
Q

Are gloves mandatory for hoist operations?

A

Yes

51
Q

What is the correct sequence for using the forest penetrator?

A

Pull out safety strap fold out seat mount seat and signal ready for ascent

52
Q

What is the minimum water depth for helocast operations?

A

15 feet

53
Q

How many tie down straps are required when securing a soft Duck inside a helicopter ?

A

At least two

54
Q

How many soft ducks can be loaded on a MH-53 Helicopter ?

A

Two boats if you load them bow first

55
Q

What type of area is the preferred landing site for amphibious operations?

A

Rural isolated sites

56
Q

What action do you take to protect a small boat from an air threat?

A

Cover the boat with camouflage

57
Q

What is the boat command given to allow the boat crew to rest during a long movement ?

A

Rest paddles

58
Q

Who handles the bow line when the team is launching a boat stern first?

A

Number 2 paddler

59
Q

The primary reason for using swim lines is to ?

A

Control and maintain team integrity

60
Q

When a climbing rope is used as a swim line it?

A

Cannot be use for climbing again

61
Q

What is the range restriction for open circuit SCUBA operations ?

A

1,500 meters

62
Q

In additional to environmental conditions and emergency assistance identify the key factors to consider when conducting the initial METT-TC analysis of a SCUBA mission?

A

Bottom time, total time available, and equipment

63
Q

What personnel is required for all dive operations?

A

Safety / standby diver

64
Q

Bottom time is the total elapsed time for a dive and starts when the diver?

A

Leaves the surfac

65
Q

What is the water entry technique a SCUBA diver should use from a fairly stable platform?

A

Giant Stride entry

66
Q

What buddy breathing technique is used when ascending to the surface?

A

Face to face

67
Q

When is the best time to move overland by foot?

A

Zero illumination and rainy windy nights

68
Q

I the team disperses before leaving the friendly area where should they rally?

A

Initial rally point

69
Q

Which type of rally point is near the objective and is used for assembly and reorganization ?

A

Objective rally point

70
Q

On the basis of personal experience most people associate objects with their ?

A

Shape

71
Q

By parking your vehicle under a heavy concentration of trees what method of camouflage are you applying?

A

Hiding

72
Q

Overland movement techniques are based on the?

A

Likelihood of enemy contact

73
Q

What is the best thing you can do if you come across a wire obstacle?

A

Skirt it

74
Q

As a general rule of thumb what amount of time should leaders us for planning before they issue an OPORD ?

A

On third of the available time

75
Q

An MMF jumper indicates a problem with his oxygen system by ?

A

Arm out palm down

76
Q

What is the best means of communicating within a team that is on patrol?

A

Arm and hand signals

77
Q

At a minimum change the password every?

A

Day

78
Q

What type of danger area exposes a team to a relatively narrow field of fire?

A

Linear

79
Q

Where should you aim when you shoot at a on attacking jet aircraft?

A

100 meters in front

80
Q

If possible the area ahead of a convoy should be scouted for likely ambush sites by?

A

An aircraft

81
Q

When a vehicle in a convoy comes under attack who directs the actions of troops as they detruck?

A

Vehicle commander

82
Q

How should you approach an obstacle or hazard while driving an ATV?

A

90 degree angle

83
Q

What is the proper way to approach a two track obstacle while driving an ATV?

A

Concentrate your weight on the footrest, apply a small amount of throttle immediately before the front wheels contact the obstacle

84
Q

What is the minimum number of ATVs that must be used for training overland infiltration?

A

2

85
Q

Who is responsible for the vehicle operator checks during on-loads and off-loads of the RATT?

A

RATT team leader

86
Q

The HMMWV has a maximum payload of?

A

2,500 to 4,400 pounds depending on the model

87
Q

What color do troops see when they wear NVGs?

A

Green

88
Q

At what time warning should everyone be in position next to his ATV or other vehicle and be ready to infill?

A

10 minute warning

89
Q

As a general rule of thumb what amount of time should leaders use planning before they issue a warning order

A

One-third of the available time

JTAC (28 decks)

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