Cct CDC A-set URE'S v-1 Flashcards

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0
Q

What world war II unit was the first to employ helicopters in combat?

A

1st Air commando Group

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1
Q

Where did the 82d airborne division jump in June 1943?

A

Sicily

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2
Q

The pathfinder squadron, provisional was activated?

A

Jan 1953 at Donaldson AFB south Carolina

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3
Q

Where was the first real world deployment for CCT?

A

Lebanon

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4
Q

Where was the first CCS opened?

A

Sewart, AFB Tennessee

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5
Q

What unit was known as the air commando?

A

4400th combat crew training squadron

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6
Q

What marine combat support base did CCTs help to resupply during a 3 month siege?

A

Khe Sanh

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7
Q

What procedures did Sergeant Wollmann and the us rangers help to develop for the “ Desert one “ mission?

A

Airfield seizures and blacked out landing

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8
Q

The desert one tragedy was the driving force behind the formation of?

A

USSOCOM

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9
Q

During the invasion of Grenada what was the personnel drop altitude at point Salinas?

A

500 feet

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10
Q

During “just cause” what two airfields did us forces seize simultaneously?

A

Rio Hato and tocumen international airport

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11
Q

During desert storm what capability did the three- man Cct element possess that became indispensable to the units to which they were attached?

A

GPS navigation

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12
Q

Who received the silver star for his gallantry at the battle of the olympic hotel?

A

Ssgt Jeff Bray

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13
Q

What prominent us government official resigned following the battle of the Olympic hotel?

A

Secretary of defense

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14
Q

What combat controller died providing covering fire for his team during the battle of Roberts ridge?

A

Tsgt John Chapman

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15
Q

What command owns the combat control instructors?

A

(AETC) air education and training command

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16
Q

What are the most beneficial aspects of consolidating Cct under AFSOC?

A

Standardization of training and equipment

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17
Q

The SOLE is normally located at ?

A

The AOC

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18
Q

What should the TL do if a control measure does not pass the “ purpose test” and it unnecessarily restricts freedom of actions?

A

Do not use it

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19
Q

Which one of the common traits of special operations prevents the enemy from gaining knowledge of an impending attack?

A

Security

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20
Q

What are the two kinds of mission planning?

A

Deliberate planning and time - sensitive planning

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21
Q

What type of process is the development of course of action?

A

Bottom- up

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22
Q

What is the customary way to brief an OPORD?

A

Have the member who worked on a particular section brief it

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23
Q

If only one segment of a mission can be rehearsed what should it be?

A

Action on the objective

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24
The special tactics TL briefing is oriented towards?
CCT traditional missions
25
In addition to the warning order information and a solid unit training SOP what other data is needed to construct warning order?
A risk assessment worksheet
26
What guideline should you follow when revealing information?
Keep it on a need to know basis
27
Which FPCON would be implemented when " an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity exists"?
FPCON ALPHA
28
What is an advantage of static-line parachuting techniques?
The lower drop altitude
29
A normal MFF may occur at any altitude from as low as 5,000 feet to as high as ?
35,000 feet
30
Which document governs static-line operations?
TO 14D1-2-1-121
31
Two static line jumpers are under canopy. Which has the right of way?
The lower jumper
32
Describe the action two static line parachutist jumping the MC-1B/C who become entangled should take?
Both parachutist immediately deploy their reserves
33
What can result from an LPU being positioned between the parachute harness and the body?
Serious injury
34
During a parachute operation where do you attach an exposed weapon?
To your left shoulder muzzle down
35
At what time warning do parachutist attach their equipment?
20- minute
36
When does the JM issue the jump command "stand by"?
At approximately 10 seconds before exit time
37
After what jump command is the door bundle positioned in the door?
7th
38
What is a modification to standard jump procedures when making and aft end ( tailgate) jump?
Use a reverse bight
39
How much time should you take to locate a floating ripcord?
Make one try to pull the ripcord using a maximum of 2 seconds
40
How many threads must be showing on the FF-2 knurl nut when rigged properly?
3
41
When jumping the AR2 what must be done prior to each jump?
Check it for aneroid leakage
42
Which of the following materials is acceptable for attaching you fins to your body during a jump?
80- pound tape
43
In order what are the three phases o an airmobile operation?
Loading, air movement, and landing.
44
When developing the air movement plan consider the weight of a combat troop to be ?
240 pounds
45
How many chem lights are used to mark a fast rope at night?
6
46
What is the capacity of a snap link with the gate closed?
2,000 pounds
47
What direction will the helicopter pilot attempt to fly if he experiences an emergency when conducting a rope ladder exfiltration?
Forward and to the left
48
What is the maximum number of personnel that can be extracted by SPIES?
14
49
What Is the recommended maximum load for SPIES operations?
5,000 pounds
50
Are gloves mandatory for hoist operations?
Yes
51
What is the correct sequence for using the forest penetrator?
Pull out safety strap fold out seat mount seat and signal ready for ascent
52
What is the minimum water depth for helocast operations?
15 feet
53
How many tie down straps are required when securing a soft Duck inside a helicopter ?
At least two
54
How many soft ducks can be loaded on a MH-53 Helicopter ?
Two boats if you load them bow first
55
What type of area is the preferred landing site for amphibious operations?
Rural isolated sites
56
What action do you take to protect a small boat from an air threat?
Cover the boat with camouflage
57
What is the boat command given to allow the boat crew to rest during a long movement ?
Rest paddles
58
Who handles the bow line when the team is launching a boat stern first?
Number 2 paddler
59
The primary reason for using swim lines is to ?
Control and maintain team integrity
60
When a climbing rope is used as a swim line it?
Cannot be use for climbing again
61
What is the range restriction for open circuit SCUBA operations ?
1,500 meters
62
In additional to environmental conditions and emergency assistance identify the key factors to consider when conducting the initial METT-TC analysis of a SCUBA mission?
Bottom time, total time available, and equipment
63
What personnel is required for all dive operations?
Safety / standby diver
64
Bottom time is the total elapsed time for a dive and starts when the diver?
Leaves the surfac
65
What is the water entry technique a SCUBA diver should use from a fairly stable platform?
Giant Stride entry
66
What buddy breathing technique is used when ascending to the surface?
Face to face
67
When is the best time to move overland by foot?
Zero illumination and rainy windy nights
68
I the team disperses before leaving the friendly area where should they rally?
Initial rally point
69
Which type of rally point is near the objective and is used for assembly and reorganization ?
Objective rally point
70
On the basis of personal experience most people associate objects with their ?
Shape
71
By parking your vehicle under a heavy concentration of trees what method of camouflage are you applying?
Hiding
72
Overland movement techniques are based on the?
Likelihood of enemy contact
73
What is the best thing you can do if you come across a wire obstacle?
Skirt it
74
As a general rule of thumb what amount of time should leaders us for planning before they issue an OPORD ?
On third of the available time
75
An MMF jumper indicates a problem with his oxygen system by ?
Arm out palm down
76
What is the best means of communicating within a team that is on patrol?
Arm and hand signals
77
At a minimum change the password every?
Day
78
What type of danger area exposes a team to a relatively narrow field of fire?
Linear
79
Where should you aim when you shoot at a on attacking jet aircraft?
100 meters in front
80
If possible the area ahead of a convoy should be scouted for likely ambush sites by?
An aircraft
81
When a vehicle in a convoy comes under attack who directs the actions of troops as they detruck?
Vehicle commander
82
How should you approach an obstacle or hazard while driving an ATV?
90 degree angle
83
What is the proper way to approach a two track obstacle while driving an ATV?
Concentrate your weight on the footrest, apply a small amount of throttle immediately before the front wheels contact the obstacle
84
What is the minimum number of ATVs that must be used for training overland infiltration?
2
85
Who is responsible for the vehicle operator checks during on-loads and off-loads of the RATT?
RATT team leader
86
The HMMWV has a maximum payload of?
2,500 to 4,400 pounds depending on the model
87
What color do troops see when they wear NVGs?
Green
88
At what time warning should everyone be in position next to his ATV or other vehicle and be ready to infill?
10 minute warning
89
As a general rule of thumb what amount of time should leaders use planning before they issue a warning order
One-third of the available time