CCB Flashcards

1
Q

what are CCBs?

A

they are antagonists which stop the entry of calcium into cells and tissues

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2
Q

how many different types of channels are there?

A

4 types of channels, L-type channel is one we focus on

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3
Q

what is the l-type channel responsible for?

A

principally responsible for inward movement of Ca2+ into skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle

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4
Q

what do CCBs treat?

A

Treats angina, hypertension and atrial fibrilation

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5
Q

what are the 3 classes of CCBs?

A

1,4-Dihydropyyridines (negative inotropic effect; vascular smooth muscle)
•Benothiazepines(negative ionotropic and chronotropic effect)
•Phenylalkylamines(negative chronotropiceffect)

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6
Q

is there structural similarity between the 3 classes?

A

no- which suggests a distinct activity profile for each

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7
Q

what is the MOA od CCBs?

A

do not block but bind in their open form at specific sites

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8
Q

what does each class contain?

A

an amine-–Water soluble hydrochloride salt for oral administration

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9
Q

are they hydrophobic or hydrophillic?

A

Predominantly hydrophobic

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10
Q

how are they absorbed?

A

rapidly 75-95% of dose but they have a low bioavailability due to first pass metabolism

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11
Q

what kind of reactions are these drugs prone to?

A

–Amlodipine (aromatic hydroxylation; dihydropyridineoxidation)
–Verapamil (N-demethylation/ O-demethylation)–Diltiazem(hydrolysis)

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12
Q

does plasma protein binding occur?

A

yes extensive plasma protein binding

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13
Q

what does calcium channels in the heart consist of?

A

Calcium channel in heart consists of a1, a2,band d subunits

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14
Q

what differs in skeletal ?

A

it has an extra gamma subunit

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15
Q

why does selectivity and sensitivity for antagonists usually occur?

A

Selectivity and sensitivity for antagonists occurs (mainly) in amino acid sequences of transmembrane segments

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16
Q

what is 1,4-Dihydropyridines selective for?

A

Selectivity for Ca2+ channels in vascular smooth muscle; minimal effect in myocardium
–S5/6 helix of domains III and IV of a1 (2 AAs in IIIS5, 7 in IIIS6, 4 in IVS6)
–(this receptor is not available on domain II)

17
Q

what are benzothiazepines selective for?

A

–Selectivity for Ca2+ channels in cardiac muscle
–A site on a1 allostericallylinked to the 1,4-dihydropyridine receptor (4AAs in each of IIIS6 and IVS6)
–Enhances activity of a 1,4-dihydropyridine with its receptor
–Synergistic effect

18
Q

what are phenylalkylamines selective for?

A

–Selectivity for Ca2+ channels in cardiac muscle
–Receptors located at S6 helix and C-terminal chain of III and IV of a1 (4AAs in each of IIIS6 and IVS6)
–Prevents binding of 1,4-dihydropyridines to their receptor

19
Q

why is the slow release of nifidipine better?

A

as the normal one had to be administered quite frequently and it has more bioavailability

20
Q

why is amlodipine administered as racemate, maleate salt ?

A

–S-isomer x1000 more active than R-isomer
–64-90% orally bioavailable
–t1/2~ 35-50 h

21
Q

what is the more reactive form of Diltiazem?

A

Vasodilatory activity resides primarily in cis-form (x10 more active than trans)

22
Q

what is the MOA of diltiazem?

A

Same mode of action as verapamil–antihypertensive–antianginal

23
Q

what is the first pass metabolism like for diltiazem?

A

Extensive first-pass metabolism–Sometimes prescribed as an inhibitor of CYP3A4

24
Q

what class of drug us diltiazem?

A

Benzothiazepine

25
Q

what is Verapamil administered as?

A

Administered as racemate(hydrochloride salt), pKa8.7

26
Q

what is the more active form of verapamil?

A

S-isomer is more active at calcium channels

27
Q

what is the metabolite of verampamil?

A

•Norverapamilis the active metabolite–bioavailability of S-isomer is 2-3 fold less than R-isomer (stereoselectivemetabolism)

28
Q

what are the main metabolic processes in verapamil?

A

N-and O-dealkylation

29
Q

how is verapamil eliminated?

A

Elimination viakidneys (~70-80%) and faeces (~20-30%)