CB Int Flashcards

1
Q

Common bandwidth for Dial-up connection

A

56Kbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Common bandwidth for T1 connection

A

1.544Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Common bandwidth for DSL connection

A

512Kbps to 8Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Unit of measurement used in measuring a computer’s disk storage capacity, or a computer’s file size

A

Megabyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Widely used when referring to data transfer rates of computer networks, often as the number of Mb per second

A

Megabit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How fast you are able to transfer data from the internet to the device you are using. This can be either synchronous or asynchronous with upload speed.

A

Download speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How fast you are able to transfer data from the device you are using to the internet. This can be either synchronous or asynchronous with download speed.

A

Upload speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A unique number that associates a computer or other device while connected to an IP-based network.

A

IP address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This ip address is temporarily assigned to a device when it connects to the web and can change regularly and return to the ISP’s shared pool for its customer base.

A

Dynamic ip address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

These addresses are permanently assigned to a customer’s leased modem, at a designated location.

A

Static ip address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Customers must purchase IP addresses in a block of

A

1, 5, or 13.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CBR model number(s)

A

CGA4131

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CBR2 Model numbers(s)

A

CGA4332COM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

BWG model number(s)

A

DPC3939B, DPC3941B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Address temporarily assigned to internet customers by an ISP

A

Dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Address permanently assigned to a customer’s leased modem at a designated location

A

static

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A 32-bit number that masks an IP address, dividing the IP address into network address and host address.

A

Subnet mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Data rate of an T1

A

1.544 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Data rate of an T3

A

43.232 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Data rate of an OC-1

A

51.84 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Data rate of an OC-3

A

155.52 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Data rate of an OC-12

A

622.08 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Data rate of an OC-24

A

1.244 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Data rate of an OC-48

A

2.488 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Data rate of an OC-192

A

10 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Data rate of an OC-256

A

13.271 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Data rate of an OC-768

A

40 Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Electronic message sent from one device to another

A

Email

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Protocol used on the internet for exchanging files

A

FTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Type of IP visible to the public

A

Routable IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Descriptive name for an address or group of addresses on the internet

A

Domain name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Location for passing data in and out of your computer

A

Port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Combines the functions of a cable modem and a router in a single device

A

IP gateway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unique number for each computer on a given network

A

IP address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the abbreviation for the internet service that locates and translates domain names into IP addresses?

A

DNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A temporary IP address

A

Dynamic IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A System of computers, peripherals, terminals, and databases connected by physical or wireless communication lines

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A geographically-close set of computers connected on a single network that use the same communication device

A

Local Area Network (LAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The World Wide Web (WWW) is this

A

A WAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A group of connected devices that are geographically-far apart

A

Wide Area Network (WAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

This is the rate at which your internet service provider can provide data between your LAN and a WAN

A

Connection speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This term refers to download connection speeds that are higher than upload connection speeds

A

Asymmetrical connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This term refers to download connection speeds that are the same as upload connection speeds

A

Symmetrical connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Desktop computer or workstation that obtains information and applications from a server

A

Client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Computer or Program that manages access to a centralized resource or network service in a network

A

Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hardware or software used to block external network access based on configurable rules.

A

Firewall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The Comcast IP Gateway serves as this kind of firewall

A

Hardware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

These type of firewalls are installed on individual computers and service as another line of defense for devices within the LAN

A

Software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This establishes a secure connection to a private network from a public network (such as the internet)

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Permits and blocks web traffic

A

Firewall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

These two addresses are required for data to be routed to the proper destination

A

MAC address and IP address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A fixed, 12 digit hexadecimal number embedded into the manufacturer’s network controller hardware

A

Media Access Control Address (MAC Address)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Organization responsible for registered and assigned manufacturer identifiers

A

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This organization is responsible for standardizing IP addresses, port numbers, and managing domain names worldwide.

A

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

This assigns IP addresses to all devices on a network

A

DHCP Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Combination of an IP address and a port number

A

Socket Address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Default port number for Hypertext transfer protocol

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Connection-oriented protocol that is slower but more reliable for data transfer

A

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Connectionless protocol that is faster for data transfer, but will not retransmit lost packets.

A

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This TCP port is used for Telnet

A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

This TCP port is used for Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP)

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

This TCP port is used for Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

This TCP port is used for Hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS)

A

443

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

This TCP port is used for Domain name system (DNS)

A

53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

This TCP port is used for secure shell (SSH)

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

This TCP port is used for post office protocol version 3 (POP3)

A

110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

This TCP port is used for Network time protocol (NTP)

A

123

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

This TCP port is used for Internet message access protocol (IMAP)

A

993

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

This TCP port is used for Simple network management protocol (SNMP)

A

161

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

This TCP port is used for Trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP)

A

69

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

This TCP port is used for Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

A

67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

This TCP port is used for File transfer protocol (FTP) data

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

This TCP port is used for File transfer protocol (FTP) control

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ARP stands for

A

Address Resolution Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The number of private IP addresses a router can forward a single port to.

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Process in which several hosts or computers share a single, or set of public IP addresses to gain internet access.

A

Network address translation (NAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Translation of one private IP to one public IP.

A

Static NAT or 1-to-1 NAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Translation of a private IP to the first available in an available pool of public IP addresses

A

Dynamic NAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

This allows multiple private IP addresses to share a common internet connection over a single public IP address by utilizing different ports

A

Port Address Translation (PAT) or NAT overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The most common version of NAT used today.

A

Port Address Translation (PAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The most well known ports use this range

A

0 - 1023

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

These registered ports are primarily used for vendor applications

A

1024 - 49151

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

These ephemeral ports are for private use and various applications

A

49152 - 65535

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The amount of quartets in an IPV6 address

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The amount of Octets in an IPV4 address

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The amount of bits of data in an octet

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The amount of bits of data in a quartet

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

IPV4 addresses are written in this format

A

Decimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

IPV6 addresses are written in this format

A

Hexadecimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

This is the amount of bits contained in an IPV4 address

A

32 Bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

This is the amount of bits contained in an IPV6 address

A

128 Bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

There are this many bits in every hexadecimal character

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The total amount of possible IPV4 addresses

A

4.2 billion

94
Q

IPV6 allows for this many unique addresses

A

340 Undecillion

95
Q

This data format is written in ones and zeroes

A

Binary

96
Q

Two methods of shortening an IPV6 address

A

Trim leading zeros (suppression) and Hide consecutive all-zero blocks (compression)

97
Q

Scope of class A Private IP addresses

A

10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255

98
Q

Scope of class B Private IP addresses

A

172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255

99
Q

Scope of class C Private IP addresses

A

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255

100
Q

This enables a computer to assign an IP address to itself when a DHCP server is unavailable.

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)

101
Q

This range of IP Addresses allows a computer to loop data back to itself for testing purposes.

A

Loopback (localhost) IPV4 addresses

102
Q

Loopback addresses always begin with this number in the first octet

A

127.x.x.x

103
Q

Automatic Private IP Addresses always begin with these two numbers in the first two octets

A

169.254.x.x

104
Q

A dedicated IP address that does not change.

A

Static IP

105
Q

In order to receive a static IP from Comcast, this must be used

A

Comcast IP Gateway

106
Q

This contains a network IP, gateway IP, routable IP/s, and Broadcast IP

A

Subnet Block

107
Q

Subnet Block contains these types of IPs

A

Network, Routable, Gateway, and Broadcast

108
Q

This is used to identify all IP addresses in a subnet block

A

Classless inter-domain routing (CIDR)

109
Q

This is the CIDR for a subnet block of 13 routable IPs

A

/28

110
Q

This is the CIDR for a subnet block of 5 routable IPs

A

/29

111
Q

This is the CIDR for a subnet block of a single routable IP

A

/30

112
Q

This is the subnet mask for a subnet block of 13 routable IPs

A

255.255.255.240

113
Q

This is the subnet mask for a subnet block of 5 routable IPs

A

255.255.255.248

114
Q

This is the subnet mask for a subnet block of a single routable IP

A

255.255.255.252

115
Q

This IP indicates a subnet block’s starting point

A

Network Address

116
Q

This IP indicates a subnet block’s ending point

A

Broadcast Address

117
Q

The maximum distance allowed for a CAT 5/5e or CAT 6 Ethernet Cable

A

100 Meters/328 Feet

118
Q

Software program that serves web pages to users (browsers)

A

Web Server

119
Q

Stores all email accounts and provides email services to individuals

A

Email Server

120
Q

This is Comcast’s prefered DNS server

A

75.75.75.75

121
Q

This is Comcast’s alternate DNS server

A

75.75.76.76

122
Q

A customer would require this many static IP addresses if they have multiple servers using different ports

A

One

123
Q

This type of IP address requires a Comcast-issued IP gateway

A

Static

124
Q

This is a conceptualization of how applications send and receive data over a network

A

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model

125
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes pin layouts, voltages, cable specifications, hubs, and network interfaces.

A

Physical Layer

126
Q

This layer of the OSI model communicates directly with the media that transmits bits

A

Physical Layer

127
Q

This layer of the OSI model consists of a media access control layer (MAC) and logical link control layer (LLC)

A

Data Link

128
Q

This layer of the OSI model ensures messages are delivered to proper LAN devices using MAC addresses

A

Data Link

129
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for MAC addresses, Switches, ARP, and DHCP

A

Data Link

130
Q

This layer of the OSI model manages logical device addressing, tracking device locations on network, and determining best path for moving data

A

Network

131
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes internet protocol (IP), internet control message protocol (ICMP), and router information protocol (RIP)

A

Network

132
Q

This layer of the OSI model segments and reassembles data from upper layers to be united on the same data stream.

A

Transport

133
Q

This layer of the OSI model provides logical connection between sending and destination hosts, flow control, and error recovery

A

Transport

134
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes user datagram protocol (UDP) and transmission control protocol (TCP)

A

Transport

135
Q

This layer of the OSI model provides dialogue control between devices and coordinates communication between systems

A

Session

136
Q

This layer of the OSI model ensures that an application’s data is separate from other user’s application data

A

Session

137
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for NetBIOS and point to point tunneling protocol (PPTP)

A

Session

138
Q

This layer of the OSI model is responsible for compression, encryption, and code formatting.

A

Presentation

139
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for moving picture experts group (MPEG) and secure sockets layer (SSL)

A

Presentation

140
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for hyper text transfer protocol (HTTP), file transfer protocol (FTP), simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP), and real-time transport protocol (RTP)

A

Application

141
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes hardware specifications for voice over IP and Bluetooth devices

A

Application

142
Q

This is layer one of the OSI model

A

Physical Layer

143
Q

This is layer two of the OSI model

A

Data Link Layer

144
Q

This is layer three of the OSI model

A

Network Layer

145
Q

This is layer four of the OSI model

A

Transport Layer

146
Q

This is layer five of the OSI model

A

Session Layer

147
Q

This is layer six of the OSI model

A

Presentation Layer

148
Q

This is layer seven of the OSI model

A

Application Layer

149
Q

This establishes a secure connection to an organization’s private network using a public network such as the internet

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

150
Q

This device provides a client PC the ability to tunnel into a LAN from the internet via an encrypted connection.

A

VPN Server or Endpoint

151
Q

Comcast provides these tools to customers who wish to set up a VPN

A

Internet Connection, IP Gateway (or Modem), Static IP Address

152
Q

These are two options for configuring a VPN endpoint

A

Assign a Static IP or Configure Port Forwarding

153
Q

This is the demarc Comcast is responsible for when troubleshooting a customers VPN

A

IP Gateway / Modem

154
Q

This is a network scheme in which portions of a network are connected to the internet, but information sent is encrypted

A

A VPN

155
Q

A VPN encypted connection is also known as this

A

A Tunnel

156
Q

Some VPNs may have this effect on a customers internet connection

A

Slow it down

157
Q

Connections established to a VPN server are inherently this

A

latent

158
Q

Three causes of VPN server connection latency

A

Distance and route, Simultaneously connected clients, Encryption protocols, Network Firewalls

159
Q

A VPN connection speed is only as fast as this

A

The slowest link in the connection

160
Q

This can only be disabled if the customer has a static block loaded on the device

A

WAN Firewall

161
Q

This person should be present when installing new services at a customer’s business

A

The customer’s IT administrator

162
Q

A business may want this feature enabled when they have their own router

A

Bridge mode

163
Q

Static IPs will not route when this feature is enabled

A

Bridge mode

164
Q

Disables the routing functions of the modem

A

Bridge mode

165
Q

This feature can be enabled on a BWG/CBR to transparently bridge all customer ethernet traffic while enabling Xfinity Wifi

A

Advanced Bridge mode

166
Q

This feature can be enabled on a BWG/CBR to transparently pass all ethernet traffic to the modem while disabling Xfinity Wifi

A

Basic Bridge mode

167
Q

This prevents unauthorized access to or from a private network

A

Firewall

168
Q

All messages entering or leaving the internet pass through this on the Comcast IP gateway

A

Firewall

169
Q

This IP gateway feature allows an inbound connection request to be forwarded to a specific machine on the local network

A

Port Forwarding

170
Q

This IP gateway feature is used to restrict outbound connections to a specific port and IP address

A

Port Blocking/Port Management

171
Q

This IP gateway feature forwards all inbound traffic to a single specified local IP address

A

DMZ

172
Q

Allows an IP address to bypass the firewall

A

DMZ

173
Q

This IP gateway feature translates a useable WAN IP’s inbound and outbound traffic to a specified local IP address

A

NAT/1 to 1 Network Address Translation

174
Q

This IP gateway feature is a way to automate port forwarding based on outbound traffic on predetermined ports

A

Port Triggering

175
Q

When a customer does not have an on site IT person, and requires services not covered by comcast, we can refer them to this Company

A

HelloTech

176
Q

This device provides firewall protection, user access management, and advanced security features

A

Comcast Business IP Gateway

177
Q

The Comcast Business IP gateway provides these features

A

Firewall protection, user access management, advanced security features

178
Q

There are this many Ethernet ports on the back of the Comcast Business Router

A

8

179
Q

There are this many telephone ports on the back of the Comcast Business Router

A

8

180
Q

Ports 1, 3, 5, and 7 of the CBR and CBR2 are this version of registered jack

A

RJ14

181
Q

Ports 2, 4, 6, and 8 of the CBR and CBR2 are this version of registered jack

A

RJ11

182
Q

The backup battery backs up these lines on a CBR

A

phone lines 1 and 2

183
Q

This Comcast Business device has built in WiFi 6 capabilities

A

CBR2

184
Q

When installing the CBR2 over Epon, customers are limited to this many X1 boxes.

A

8

185
Q

This color light indicates a 2.5Gbps ethernet connection on port 5 or 6 of the CBR2

A

Blue

186
Q

The power LED will be lit this color when the CBR2 is using the backup battery for power.

A

Amber

187
Q

This Comcast Business device can connect over HFC or EPON

A

CBR2

188
Q

This Comcast Business device has 6 LAN ports.

A

CBR2

189
Q

These Comcast Business devices support both phone and internet capabilities

A

CBR/CBR2

190
Q

This must be installed along with the CBR2’s internal backup battery for voice customers over EPON

A

a UPS for the EPON device

191
Q

This utility can be used to troubleshoot network issues by sending a packet to a specified address and waiting for a reply

A

Ping

192
Q

This utility can be used to troubleshoot network issues by sending a packet to a specified host and showing how many hops the packet requires to reach the host

A

Traceroute

193
Q

This should be done before replacing a previously working device

A

Record all of the settings

194
Q

This is a frequent cause of connectivity issues for Comcast Business internet customers

A

Customer network problems

195
Q

These type of IP Addresses are in a subnet block

A

Network, Routable, Gateway, Broadcast

196
Q

These two steps can be taken to identify a duplicated static IP issue

A

Ping the static gateway IP and then unplug the modem

197
Q

DHCP

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

198
Q

Static IPs and Bridge Mode can be enabled/disabled without needing to log into the GUI through this tool

A

Tech360

199
Q

The option to load static IP can be found in this location in Tech360

A

The modem’s context menu

200
Q

Comcast Policy prohibits technicians from working on customer equipement past this point

A

Demarcation Point

201
Q

The BWG/CBR combine these two pieces of internet gear

A

Modem and Router

202
Q

Electronic message sent from one device to another

A

Email

203
Q

Protocol used on the internet for exchanging files

A

FTP

204
Q

Type of IP visible to the public

A

Routable IP

205
Q

Descriptive name for an address or group of addresses on the internet

A

Domain name

206
Q

Location for passing data in and out of your computer

A

Port

207
Q

Combines the functions of a cable modem and a router in a single device

A

IP gateway

208
Q

Unique number for each computer on a given network

A

IP address

209
Q

What is the abbreviation for the internet service that locates and translates domain names into IP addresses?

A

DNS

210
Q

A temporary IP address

A

Dynamic IP

211
Q

This is an enabling force for developing and implementing agile, assured, and orchestrated Third Network services for the digital economy and hyper-connected world.

A

Metro Ethernet Forum (MEF)

212
Q

Comcast Ethernet Network uses frame sizes in this range.

A

128 to 9000 (Jumbo Frame)

213
Q

This layer of switch utilizes MAC addresses to quickly pass information from port to port

A

Layer 2

214
Q

This layer of switch (CMTS/SUR), utilize IP addresses to pass information from port to port

A

Layer 3

215
Q

EPL, EVPL, and ENS are ethernet solutions that operate on this OSI layer

A

Layer 2

216
Q

EDI is an ethernet solution that operates on this OSI layer

A

Layer 3

217
Q

This is the “size” of the network. It is defined either as a max or min amount of data that the network system can handle.

A

Bandwidth

218
Q

This is the “success rate” of a network. It is defined as the amount of data that is successfully delivered in a given period of time.

A

Throughput

219
Q

This is the “reliable bandwidth” of a network. It is defined as the amount of data that the network can transfer reliably over a given period of time.

A

Capacity

220
Q

This is an intelligent routing protocol that makes routing decisions based on paths, network policies, and/or rule sets configured by the network administrator.

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

221
Q

EPL

A

Ethernet Private Line

222
Q

EVPL

A

Ethernet Virtual Private Line

223
Q

ENS

A

Ethernet Network Service

224
Q

EDI

A

Ethernet Dedicated Internet

225
Q

This Comcast Business product offers point to point connectivity between two sites for bandwidth-intensive applications

A

Ethernet Private Line (EPL)

226
Q

This Comcast Business product offers point to multipoint connections tailored by application

A

Ethernet Virtual Private Line (EVPL)

227
Q

This Comcast Business product offers multipoint to multipoint connectivity for businesses with high bandwidth requirements and multiple locations

A

Ethernet Network Service (ENS)

228
Q

This Comcast Business product offers high-bandwidth connectivity between a LAN and the internet

A

Ethernet Dedicated Internet (EDI)

229
Q

Ethernet Virtual Private Line (EVPL) customers must have this standard of VLAN tagging enabled on their equipment

A

IEEE 802.1Q

230
Q

99.99% availability means that our customers must not lose service for more than this amount of time per month

A

four minutes

231
Q

99.9% availability means that our customers must not lose service for more than this amount of time per month

A

Fourty minutes

232
Q

EDI circuits are typically divided into these two IP blocks

A

A point to point and customer allocation block