Cattle Diseases #2 Flashcards

1
Q

A 10-day old Holstein bull calf presents to you because the owner says it has not taken milk bottles the last two feedings. On presentation, the calf is dull, laying in sternal, does not have a suckle reflex, and has the following physical exam findings:

Rectal temperature: 105.3 F

Respiratory rate: 60 breaths/minute

Heart rate: 160 beats/minute

Diarrhea staining around perineum, umbilicus feels enlarged and hot, ears are droopy bilateral.

Which of the following differentials are most likely (choose all that apply)?

A

Otitis media/externa
Meningitis
Failure of passive transfer

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2
Q

Botulinum toxin, produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum, works at the neuromuscular junction to prevent the release of acetylcholine.

A

True

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3
Q

Which of the following about Clostridium tetani is correct?

A

Clostridium tetani only begins producing spores when in an anaerobic environment. Exposure to oxygen will halt its reproduction and toxin production.

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4
Q

A 6-month old show steer presents for a 12 hour history of appearing agitated, bumping into the sides of his stall, bellowing, and not eating. He is well vaccinated, eats hay and high-protein grain, lives with four other steers of the same age, and was dehorned and castrated (surgical scrotal castration) at 3 months of age. Physical exam findings on presentation:

Temperature: 100.5 F

Pulse: 100 beats/minute

Respirations: 30 breaths/minute

Mentation: bright, alert, responsive

Cranial nerve exam: no menace, PLRs intact bilateral, palpebral reflex present, no other abnormalities

Ruminations: minimal activity, no good ruminations heard, feels sloshy on succussion and ballotment

Based on your physical exam findings, and the history, what is your top differential?

A

Polioencephalomalacia due to rumen dysbiosis.

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5
Q

A 5-month old calf presents to your clinic for treatment of a third bout of what the owner assumes is polio. Over the last couple months, this calf has had episodes of depression, anorexia, apparent blindness, and strabismus. The first time the calf showed these signs, you examined him and decided to “treat the treatable” by administering dexamethasone, penicillin, and injectable thiamine. The calf made a quick turnaround and was normal again two days later. This same pattern repeated again 3 weeks later and the owner treated in the same manner, with the same result. Nothing has changed in the calf’s environment or feeding, and it is vaccinated for respiratory diseases and tetanus. Based on this waxing and waning history of neurologic signs, what neurologic disease are you suspicious of?

A

Brain abscess or pituitary abscess

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6
Q

Whole milk is higher in sodium content than most milk replacers.

A

False

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7
Q

Which of the following statements about polioencephalomalacia is most correct?

A

Vitamin B1 (thiamin) is an important co factor for glucose production

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8
Q

Which of the following viruses can cause cerebellar hypoplasia in the fetus depending on the stage of gestation that the cow was infected? (Choose two)

A

Schmallenberg virus
Bovine viral diarrhea virus

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9
Q

All of the following are considered risk factors for clinical listeriosis except:

A

Band castration

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10
Q

You go out to see a 3-year old beef cow on pasture in mid-Autumn who has been drooling excessively, has a head tilt to the right, and has a large amount of wet hay stuck in her mouth at all times. No other cattle in the herd are affected. She is well-vaccinated, gets supplemental grain, and just gave birth to a healthy bull calf. Which of the following is your top differential?

A

Listeriosis

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11
Q

You are called out to see a 2-day old angus bull calf who has been standing in a weird position each time he is assisted to rise. It is a large calf, about 140 pounds, and as you examine the calf and ask more questions about his history, you find out that he presented backwards in the cow, owners placed chains above and below his rear fetlocks and then 5 family members pulled him out of the cow. He was hip-locked on the way out, and it took a significant amount of time to successfully deliver. Based on the history and physical exam, you suspect the following:

A

femoral nerve paralysis

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12
Q

It is July, an owner calls you about a partially-down 5 year old Angus cow. She has been dog-sitting for the last two days, her appetite is slightly decreased, and she has remained hydrated. She is vaccinated against respiratory pathogens, lives with 30 other cows, and is used for breeding. She had her last calf 5 months ago; it was an uncomplicated delivery, and she has been normal since then. When you arrive, you examine the cow: click on the hotspots in the picture below to find out about your exam. Based on these findings, all of the following differentials are possible except:

A

Histophilus Somni

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13
Q

You are called out to see a 2 year old Holstein cow that one of your clients just purchased. The client spent a significant amount of money on this cow named Ultramax MilkQueen, she was shipped from California one week ago. Her health certification paperwork claims that she was completely healthy and had normal ambulation right before she was transported, but when she was led off the trailer, She had a hunched posture and an odd gait. Click on the hotspots below to find out more about your neurologic assessment. Based on your findings, where are the possible lesion locations?

A

C6-T2

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14
Q

Which organism should be the primary target for antimicrobial decision-making when treating a calf with meningitis?

A

E. Coli

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15
Q

Lumbosacral CSF tap is preferred to atlanto-occipital CSF tap in cattle.

A

True

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16
Q

Left-sided heart failure is the most commonly diagnosed heart failure in cattle.

A

False

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17
Q

Which of the following is not associated with right-sided heart failure?

A

Cough

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18
Q

Which of the following is a normal heart rate for an adult cow?

A

72 (60-80)

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19
Q

Which of the following is most likely to have the best outcome in regards to traumatic reticulopericarditis (hardware disease)?

A

Prevention with magnet

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20
Q

A 4 year old Holstein cow presents to you for an acute drop in feed intake and milk production. She was fresh 3 weeks ago. She stands with a kyphotic stance, abducted elbows, and does not ventroflex when her withers are pinched. If this condition is affecting her heart, what do you expect to hear upon auscultation of the heart?

A

Muffled sounds with splashing

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21
Q

Which of the following is a common history of a calf with a congenital heart defect?

A

The owner complains that he has treated the calf for pneumonia with 3 different drugs, none of which helped.

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22
Q

Bovine Respiratory disease complex (bacterial bronchopneumonia) can be caused by a whole host of bacterial organisms. Which of the following are the most likely causes of this syndrome in association with prior viral infection?

A

M. hemolytica, P. multocida, H. Somnus

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23
Q

Bovine bacterial respiratory disease is likely to be initiated by a primary, acute viral disease. Which of the following are common causes of viral insults associated with acute bronchopneumonia: (pick all that apply)

A

Bovine viral diarrhea virus
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus

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24
Q

A 7 year old dairy cow is presented to your full service veterinary hospital, car wash and Laundromat for examination due to weight loss, poor appetite, low milk production. On examination you note that the cows gait is stilted and she is reluctant to move, her elbows are abducted at rest and she has a positive withers response test. This cow most likely has:

A

Thoracic Inflammation

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25
Q

The veterinarian of record (the person prescribing the antibiotic for the producer) is responsible for drug residues of florfenicol in a 5 year old dairy cow at slaughter?

A

True

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26
Q

Your client, Bluebonnet Spearman has an extra 50 tons of sweet potatoes left over from the Thanksgiving holiday cowboy feed. They are now moldy. In hopes of preventing the development of atypical interstitial pneumonia in his cows, which of the following management practices would you recommend?

A

Never feed moldy sweet potatoes

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27
Q

What is the causative agent associated with bovine warts?

A

Bovine papilloma virus

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28
Q

What animals are most at risk for warts?

A

6 month old dairy heifer

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29
Q

What must be done if you diagnose chorioptic mange?

A

Treat all cattle in herd

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30
Q

How is dermatophilosis diagnosed?

A

Direct microscopic examination of pus

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31
Q

What is one of the common dermatophytes in ruminants?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

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32
Q

What is the common term for dermatophytosis?

A

Ringworm

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33
Q

What is the usual duration of dermatophytosis?

A

1-3 months

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34
Q

When is the best time to treat for hypoderma in cattle?

A

July

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35
Q

What is a clinical sign of a lice infestation?

A

Pale mucous membranes

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36
Q

How should lice infestation be treated?

A

Pyrethrin powder

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37
Q

What is the most common types of mange that affect farm animals?

A

Chorioptes spp and demodex spp.

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38
Q

What will help in the diagnosis of Type III photosensitization?

A

Elevated GGT, SDH

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39
Q

90% of bovine lameness is located where?

A

Hoof

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40
Q

The following statement(s) is true regarding foot rot in cattle:

A

Foot rot is commonly associated with D. nodosus and F. necrophorum

Foot rot is primarily an infection of the external soft tissues structures of the foot but can spread to the coffin joint, navicular structures, and the flexor tendon sheaths

Foot rot is associated with swelling, pain and red skin around the coronary band

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41
Q

You examine a cow for lameness and find the following lesion.
Hairy hoof warts

A

Oxytetracycline impregnated bandage on the foot

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42
Q

You are presented with a 800 lb steer that has been “non-weight-bearing lame” on its left hind leg (it is not bearing any weight on its left hind leg) for 2 days. The owner is concerned that it is a fracture. They have been treating at home with Flunixin meglumine (a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug) with mild improvement. Physical examination did not reveal any areas that appear hot, swollen, painful, or unstable. Which of the following is the most likely differential?

A

Hoof abscess

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43
Q

One of your clients has been feeding a very hot ration (high carbohydrate content) in the hopes of increasing his milk production. You diagnose several of his cows with laminitis among various other foot lesions. You explain to the farmer that many of the other foot lesions may be due to laminitis or subclinical laminitis. Which of the following hoof lesions is NOT a sequela to laminitis?

A

Corns (interdigital fibroma)

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44
Q

When performing a lameness exam on a cow, which of the following is an Uncommon (Not Common) sign of lameness:

A

The cow vocalizes when the lame leg contacts the ground

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45
Q

A farmer calls you out to examine a 5 day old Angus calf that cannot stand. You palpate instability at the mid-diaphyseal portion of the bone between the stifle and the hock. Which of the following would not be a viable option for stabilization of this fracture?

A

Cast

46
Q

Which of the following would be a good candidate for application of a plain cast?

A

A calf with a Salter-Harris type 1 fracture of the distal metacarpus.

47
Q

A cast placed on a mature Holstein cow should incorporate the foot.

A

True

48
Q

A ventral coxofemoral luxation has a better prognosis than a dorsal luxation.

A

False

49
Q

Which of the following is not commonly a clinical sign of a rupture cranial cruciate ligament in cattle?

A

Dependent effusion of the limb distal to the stifle.

50
Q

Which of the following has the best prognosis?

A

A dorsal hip luxation in a Holstein cow that occurred the night prior.

51
Q

What nerve does listeriosis travel up?

A

Trigeminal

52
Q

Is listeriosis unilateral?

A

YES!

53
Q

What is found in Purkinje cells for rabies?

A

Negri bodies

54
Q

What causes thromboembolic mingioencephalitis

A

Histophilus Somni

55
Q

What days does cerebellar hyperplasia for BVD?

A

120-180

56
Q

What days for Schmallenberg?

A

60-120

57
Q

What is diagnostic with cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Loss of perkinje cells

58
Q

What can mimic listerioisis?

A

Otitis media/interna

59
Q

what is a risk factor for pituitary rupture?

A

Nose rings

60
Q

What bacteria causes brain abscess?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

61
Q

What bacteria causes pituitary rupture?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

62
Q

What 2 hindlimb nerves are affected by calving paralysis?

A

Sciatic and obturator nerves

63
Q

How to treat obturator nerve paralysi ?

A

Hobbles

64
Q

What is the most common neoplasia affecting bovine SC?

A

BLV-lymphosarcoma

65
Q

How does hypodermic bovis migrate?

A

Through SQ fat

66
Q

Is botulism LMN or UMN?

A

LMNI

67
Q

Is tetanus LMN or UMN?

A

UMN

68
Q

What is the mechanism of tetanus?

A

Blocks release of glycine and GABA

69
Q

Where do you not look to determine hydration status in a cow?

A

Oral

70
Q

Where is pulmonary valve located?

A

Base at 3rd ICS

71
Q

Where is aortic valve located?

A

Base of 4th ICS

72
Q

Where is mitral valve located?

A

Apical of 5th ICS

73
Q

Where is tricuspid located?

A

Right side 3rd ICS

74
Q

what shape of abdomen does a hardware disease cow have/

A

papple

75
Q

What is white muscle disease?

A

Vitamin E + selenium deficiency

76
Q

What does white muscle disease look like?

A

Stiff muscles

77
Q

What are 2 chronic abscessing bacterial pneumonias?

A

Trueparella progenies
Mycoplasma bovis

78
Q

What is the number 1 disease of young calves?

A

Diarrhea

79
Q

What is the number 2 disease of young calves?

A

Respiratory disease

80
Q

What is fog fever?

A

Pulmonary edema caused from lush greens

81
Q

What is a verminous parasite that causes pneumonia?

A

Dictyocaulus viviparous

82
Q

What bacteria doesn’t have a cell wall?

A

Mycoplasma bovis

83
Q

What are Gram (-)?

A

MPH

84
Q

What is the most conservative rule for drug clearance?

A

10 * T 1/2

85
Q

What is dermatophilosis?

A

Rain scald

86
Q

What bacteria is dermatophilosis?

A

Dermatophilosis congolensis

87
Q

What does dermatophilosis look like under microscope?

A

Train tracks

88
Q

What is dermatophytosis?

A

Ring worm

89
Q

What are bacteria that cause dermatophytosis?

A

T verrucosum and T mentagrophytes

90
Q

What are the 2 types of lice

A

sucking and biting

91
Q

How do you treat lice?

A

Pyretghrin spray

92
Q

What are the 3 types of mange?

A

Chorioptic
Sarcoptic
Psoroptic

93
Q

How is mange treated?

A

Lime sulfur

94
Q

Which mange is reportable?

A

Sarcoptic and psoroptic

95
Q

What is another name for myasis?

A

Fly strike

96
Q

What are the 2 types of hypoderma (Warbles)?

A

H bovis
H lineatum

97
Q

Where are H bovis eggs layed?

A

Upper part of hind lumb

98
Q

Where are h lineatum eggs laid?

A

Lower body or legs

99
Q

Where does H bovis migrate?

A

Spinal cord

100
Q

Where does H lineatum migrate?

A

esophagus

101
Q

Is stephanofilariasis a problem?

A

No

102
Q

What is type 1 photosensitization?

A

Primary (ingestion of St John Warts, buckwheat, wild carrot)

103
Q

What is type 2 photosensitization?

A

Congenital

104
Q

What is type 3 photosensitization?

A

Hepatogenous

105
Q

Where is Rusterholz ulcer most common?

A

Rear lateral

106
Q

What are the 2 diseases of foot rot?

A

D. nodosus
F. necrophorum

107
Q

What is a “better” treatment of claw pathology?

A

Ankylosis

108
Q

What is recovery time for ankylosis?

A

3-4m

109
Q

What fracture treatments utilize external coaptation?

A

Splint ,sling, cast
Secondary bone healing

110
Q

What fracture treatments utilize internal fixation?

A

IM pins, screws, plates, nails
Primary bone healing

111
Q

What does straight hock conformation indicate?

A

Cranial cruciate tear

112
Q
A